View Full Version : Mathematical Riddles


dwaxe
Mar 01, 2009, 03:15 PM
I could swear that I've seen some math threads overrun by these, but I can't find them anymore. Anyway, why are these proofs wrong?:
a = b
a^2 = ab
a^2-b^2 = ab-b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
a+b = b
2b = b
2 = 1


x = (Pi+3)/2
2x = Pi+3
2x(Pi-3) = (Pi+3)(Pi-3)
2Pix-6x = Pi^2-9
9-6x = Pi^2-2Pix
9-6x+x^2 = Pi^2-2Pix+x^2
(3-x)^2 = (Pi-x)^2
3-x = Pi-x
Pi = 3


-1 = -1
-1/1 = -1/1
-1/1 = 1/-1
sqrt(-1/1) = sqrt(1/-1)
i/1 = 1/i
i = 1/i
i * i = 1
-1 = 1

Perfection
Mar 01, 2009, 03:38 PM
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
a+b = b
This is a divide by zero


I suspect the second one has a divide by zero error as well, but I'm too lazy to find it.



sqrt(-1/1) = sqrt(1/-1)
i/1 = 1/i

sqrt(a/b) = sqrt(a)/sqrt(b) only for non negative b

ParadigmShifter
Mar 01, 2009, 03:46 PM
1/i = -i anyway so that should set of alarm bells for #3

Mise
Mar 01, 2009, 03:46 PM
x = (Pi+3)/2
2x = Pi+3
2x(Pi-3) = (Pi+3)(Pi-3)
2Pix-6x = Pi^2-9
9-6x = Pi^2-2Pix
9-6x+x^2 = Pi^2-2Pix+x^2
(3-x)^2 = (Pi-x)^2 .................... [1]
3-x = Pi-x ................................ [2]
Pi = 3
(red bits mine)

[2] is just one solution to eq'n [1]. Here are the others:

-(3-x) = (pi-x)
(3-x) = -(pi-x)
-(3-x) = -(pi-x)

Clearly, the solution you wrote down ([2] above) is incorrect. The correct solution is either:
-(3-x) = (pi-x)
or:
(3-x) = -(pi-x)
which both simplify to:
x = (pi+3)/2
as per the first line.

Onionsoilder
Mar 01, 2009, 08:29 PM
I saw this one the other day:

Time = Money
Women = Time*Money
Women = Money^2
Money = sqrtEvil
Money^2 = Evil
Women = Evil

dragonforce
Mar 01, 2009, 08:34 PM
pizza/me+my friends=number of slices i want-1=BS
((popular girl in high school+30 years)-job)couch=fat
(rate)time=distance(wich also=)$of a hooker

Aramazd
Mar 01, 2009, 08:58 PM
pizza/me+my friends=number of slices i want-1=BS
((popular girl in high school+30 years)-job)couch=fat
(rate)time=distance(wich also=)$of a hooker
You're stealing material from Dmitri Martin!!!:mad:

Perfection
Mar 01, 2009, 09:43 PM
That'll show him, Dmititri Martin stole material form me. :mad:

Souron
Mar 01, 2009, 09:50 PM
First I should call your attention to this thread, (http://forums.civfanatics.com/showthread.php?t=308225) particularly posts 23, and 27.

And for a new one:
n^2 = n*n, where n != 0
n^2 = n + n +...+ n (n times).
2n = 1 + 1 +...+ 1 (n times) -- take derivatives.
2n = n
2 = 1 -- divide by n (n != 0)

Perfection
Mar 01, 2009, 09:55 PM
You didn't take the derivative of the (n times)

taper
Mar 01, 2009, 09:59 PM
How about this one?

e^1 = e^((j*pi)/(j*pi))
=(e^(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
using Euler's Theorem
=(cos (j*pi) +j*sin(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
cos->1, sin->0
=(1-j*0)^(1/(j*pi))
=1^(1/(j*pi))
=1
e=1

Souron
Mar 01, 2009, 10:00 PM
Yep .

cubsfan6506
Mar 01, 2009, 10:12 PM
I could swear that I've seen some math threads overrun by these, but I can't find them anymore. Anyway, why are these proofs wrong?:[FONT=Verdana]
a = b
a^2 = ab
a^2-b^2 = ab-b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
a+b = b
2b = b
2 = 1

Answer Should be a^2-b^2=ab-b^2 Which just gets you back to where you were before.

Perfection
Mar 01, 2009, 10:17 PM
There's no misstep there, Cubsfan. That's a Perfectly okay algebraic manipulation.

dragonforce
Mar 02, 2009, 08:17 PM
why is this in the humar forum?

mechaerik
Mar 03, 2009, 06:20 PM
Why is this in the Humor Forum?
This is on topic though:
PROOF THAT GIRLS ARE EVIL:
http://dansemacabre.files.wordpress.com/2007/03/proof_girls_are_evil.jpg

dragonforce
Mar 04, 2009, 05:10 PM
How about this one?

e^1 = e^((j*pi)/(j*pi))
=(e^(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
using Euler's Theorem
=(cos (j*pi) +j*sin(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
cos->1, sin->0
=(1-j*0)^(1/(j*pi))
=1^(1/(j*pi))
=1
e=1

yea but stuff like this is not funny

Riffraff
Mar 05, 2009, 08:01 AM
How about this one?

e^1 = e^((j*pi)/(j*pi))
=(e^(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
using Euler's Theorem
=(cos (j*pi) +j*sin(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
cos->1, sin->0
=(1-j*0)^(1/(j*pi))
=1^(1/(j*pi))
=1
e=1

Well you didn't use Euler's formula correctly (should read simply cos(pi) +..., furthermore that would evalualte to -1) but the 'error' is most likely the 2nd equals sign. That's only allowed with real exponents - although I'm not quite sure what the reason is. Probably to do with the fact that you have many expressions all evaluating to the same number.

dragonforce
Mar 05, 2009, 06:01 PM
this thread should be bumped:mad:

Huayna Capac357
Mar 05, 2009, 06:30 PM
I could swear that I've seen some math threads overrun by these, but I can't find them anymore. Anyway, why are these proofs wrong?:
a = b
a^2 = ab
a^2-b^2 = ab-b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
a+b = b
2b = b
2 = 1


x = (Pi+3)/2
2x = Pi+3
2x(Pi-3) = (Pi+3)(Pi-3)
2Pix-6x = Pi^2-9
9-6x = Pi^2-2Pix
9-6x+x^2 = Pi^2-2Pix+x^2
(3-x)^2 = (Pi-x)^2
3-x = Pi-x
Pi = 3


-1 = -1
-1/1 = -1/1
-1/1 = 1/-1
sqrt(-1/1) = sqrt(1/-1)
i/1 = 1/i
i = 1/i
i * i = 1
-1 = 1

i^2 is -1, not 1.

Perfection
Mar 05, 2009, 09:25 PM
That's not the misstep though