View Full Version : Mathematical Riddles
dwaxe Mar 01, 2009, 03:15 PM I could swear that I've seen some math threads overrun by these, but I can't find them anymore. Anyway, why are these proofs wrong?:
a = b
a^2 = ab
a^2-b^2 = ab-b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
a+b = b
2b = b
2 = 1
x = (Pi+3)/2
2x = Pi+3
2x(Pi-3) = (Pi+3)(Pi-3)
2Pix-6x = Pi^2-9
9-6x = Pi^2-2Pix
9-6x+x^2 = Pi^2-2Pix+x^2
(3-x)^2 = (Pi-x)^2
3-x = Pi-x
Pi = 3
-1 = -1
-1/1 = -1/1
-1/1 = 1/-1
sqrt(-1/1) = sqrt(1/-1)
i/1 = 1/i
i = 1/i
i * i = 1
-1 = 1
Perfection Mar 01, 2009, 03:38 PM (a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
a+b = b
This is a divide by zero
I suspect the second one has a divide by zero error as well, but I'm too lazy to find it.
sqrt(-1/1) = sqrt(1/-1)
i/1 = 1/i
sqrt(a/b) = sqrt(a)/sqrt(b) only for non negative b
ParadigmShifter Mar 01, 2009, 03:46 PM 1/i = -i anyway so that should set of alarm bells for #3
Mise Mar 01, 2009, 03:46 PM x = (Pi+3)/2
2x = Pi+3
2x(Pi-3) = (Pi+3)(Pi-3)
2Pix-6x = Pi^2-9
9-6x = Pi^2-2Pix
9-6x+x^2 = Pi^2-2Pix+x^2
(3-x)^2 = (Pi-x)^2 .................... [1]
3-x = Pi-x ................................ [2]
Pi = 3
(red bits mine)
[2] is just one solution to eq'n [1]. Here are the others:
-(3-x) = (pi-x)
(3-x) = -(pi-x)
-(3-x) = -(pi-x)
Clearly, the solution you wrote down ([2] above) is incorrect. The correct solution is either:
-(3-x) = (pi-x)
or:
(3-x) = -(pi-x)
which both simplify to:
x = (pi+3)/2
as per the first line.
Onionsoilder Mar 01, 2009, 08:29 PM I saw this one the other day:
Time = Money
Women = Time*Money
Women = Money^2
Money = sqrtEvil
Money^2 = Evil
Women = Evil
dragonforce Mar 01, 2009, 08:34 PM pizza/me+my friends=number of slices i want-1=BS
((popular girl in high school+30 years)-job)couch=fat
(rate)time=distance(wich also=)$of a hooker
Aramazd Mar 01, 2009, 08:58 PM pizza/me+my friends=number of slices i want-1=BS
((popular girl in high school+30 years)-job)couch=fat
(rate)time=distance(wich also=)$of a hooker
You're stealing material from Dmitri Martin!!!:mad:
Perfection Mar 01, 2009, 09:43 PM That'll show him, Dmititri Martin stole material form me. :mad:
Souron Mar 01, 2009, 09:50 PM First I should call your attention to this thread, (http://forums.civfanatics.com/showthread.php?t=308225) particularly posts 23, and 27.
And for a new one:
n^2 = n*n, where n != 0
n^2 = n + n +...+ n (n times).
2n = 1 + 1 +...+ 1 (n times) -- take derivatives.
2n = n
2 = 1 -- divide by n (n != 0)
Perfection Mar 01, 2009, 09:55 PM You didn't take the derivative of the (n times)
taper Mar 01, 2009, 09:59 PM How about this one?
e^1 = e^((j*pi)/(j*pi))
=(e^(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
using Euler's Theorem
=(cos (j*pi) +j*sin(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
cos->1, sin->0
=(1-j*0)^(1/(j*pi))
=1^(1/(j*pi))
=1
e=1
Souron Mar 01, 2009, 10:00 PM Yep .
cubsfan6506 Mar 01, 2009, 10:12 PM I could swear that I've seen some math threads overrun by these, but I can't find them anymore. Anyway, why are these proofs wrong?:[FONT=Verdana]
a = b
a^2 = ab
a^2-b^2 = ab-b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
a+b = b
2b = b
2 = 1
Answer Should be a^2-b^2=ab-b^2 Which just gets you back to where you were before.
Perfection Mar 01, 2009, 10:17 PM There's no misstep there, Cubsfan. That's a Perfectly okay algebraic manipulation.
dragonforce Mar 02, 2009, 08:17 PM why is this in the humar forum?
mechaerik Mar 03, 2009, 06:20 PM Why is this in the Humor Forum?
This is on topic though:
PROOF THAT GIRLS ARE EVIL:
http://dansemacabre.files.wordpress.com/2007/03/proof_girls_are_evil.jpg
dragonforce Mar 04, 2009, 05:10 PM How about this one?
e^1 = e^((j*pi)/(j*pi))
=(e^(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
using Euler's Theorem
=(cos (j*pi) +j*sin(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
cos->1, sin->0
=(1-j*0)^(1/(j*pi))
=1^(1/(j*pi))
=1
e=1
yea but stuff like this is not funny
Riffraff Mar 05, 2009, 08:01 AM How about this one?
e^1 = e^((j*pi)/(j*pi))
=(e^(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
using Euler's Theorem
=(cos (j*pi) +j*sin(j*pi))^(1/(j*pi))
cos->1, sin->0
=(1-j*0)^(1/(j*pi))
=1^(1/(j*pi))
=1
e=1
Well you didn't use Euler's formula correctly (should read simply cos(pi) +..., furthermore that would evalualte to -1) but the 'error' is most likely the 2nd equals sign. That's only allowed with real exponents - although I'm not quite sure what the reason is. Probably to do with the fact that you have many expressions all evaluating to the same number.
dragonforce Mar 05, 2009, 06:01 PM this thread should be bumped:mad:
Huayna Capac357 Mar 05, 2009, 06:30 PM I could swear that I've seen some math threads overrun by these, but I can't find them anymore. Anyway, why are these proofs wrong?:
a = b
a^2 = ab
a^2-b^2 = ab-b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
a+b = b
2b = b
2 = 1
x = (Pi+3)/2
2x = Pi+3
2x(Pi-3) = (Pi+3)(Pi-3)
2Pix-6x = Pi^2-9
9-6x = Pi^2-2Pix
9-6x+x^2 = Pi^2-2Pix+x^2
(3-x)^2 = (Pi-x)^2
3-x = Pi-x
Pi = 3
-1 = -1
-1/1 = -1/1
-1/1 = 1/-1
sqrt(-1/1) = sqrt(1/-1)
i/1 = 1/i
i = 1/i
i * i = 1
-1 = 1
i^2 is -1, not 1.
Perfection Mar 05, 2009, 09:25 PM That's not the misstep though
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