Ok I'm sorry that dose not make any sense, If 2K is this profit hungry soulless corporation, if Civ 5 dose not preform well (i.e. no/little profits) then your not going to get a Steamless Civ 6 your just not going to get another Civ period and since 2K now owns the Civ trademark (someone correct me if I am wrong here) forming a new company if not going to do anything.
It´s only a question if in such a case the failure is seen in the franchise/genre itself or other factors. Crying loud that steam is a reason should be a sign, that even in case of the not so good sales, it´s no problem with the franchise itself. Now imagine the scenario that the sales wouldn´t be that good (because of steam), but noone had complained loud - what would happen to the franchise in this case?
But even if steam is seen as reason by the publisher, he can decide to change the way (civ6 optional steam) or decide to stop the franchise, if he is not willing to create a steamless game.
But in the worst case - i think most could live with a new name* - as long as the game is a civ. Eg.: "OSROAOSF" (our steamless revival of an old strategie game franchise)
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@ Aussie Lurker
And even this number - 76 - is still higher than the person who will buy the because of steam - 59. Any steam sale could be achieved also with optional steamworks or by selling civ5 on steam. The first would also cover the person who like the game and buy it (or more likely) because of the features of steamworks, the second would cover the persons who buy games only on steam (the steam community).
That there is a difference between number of person claiming something and the number of persons doing it actually, you maybe right. At least my assumed number is also "a bit" lower than the actual percentage in the poll. But i think that the relation between the both extremes (pro steamworks, against steamworks) can be (certainly an arguable "can") quite good covered by the pool (both have a motivation to participate - the group which most likely will not participate and is probably underestimated is the "i don´t care and bother the entire steamworks stuff" group - they have nothing to win and are surely quite bothered by the long-lasting discussion).
So with an optional steamworks implementation - as long as there is no believe by the publisher that the piracy rate will be lower because of the steam drm or Valve disallowed an optionial steamworks use in the deal - would be the business wise better decision. More sales (soemone said, even one sale is one more) and perhaps more satisfied customers. If civ5 will fail because of steamworks is a different story, but losing sales because of "nothing" (some point why a non optional implementation could make sense, most likely not complete)
- in some scenarios Valve would be the "bad guy": forbid a optinal steamworks implementation or much worser wouldn´t sell civ5 without steamworks (the only reasons to lose the steamworks/steam sales) or
- 2k/Firaxis would be the "bad guy": decided not to provide steamworks optional because of additional user limitation (no reselling, ...), drm (expecting a lower piracy rate), advertising a market shift towards online distribution (higher revenue share, steam can also be seen as pre-stage to cloud gaming) or ignorance (didn´t expected that anybody could have problems with it)
is a different story.
@ Merovinge
There was a reason why i used the raw figures and not percentages or odds this time. Trying to generalize the result of such a poll - or at least making general conclusions because of the poll, would need a bit more argumentation that i´m willing to provide or even think about atm. In general it´s always easy to neglect results (and most likely poll results which aren´t liked), but in most cases there is no real prove (in sense of argumentation and not only claiming) why the result has absolut no information (which doesn´t mean that this information has to be bias free), or even why there is a connection between the observerd answer behavior and the selection criteria to participate. And even if there is a connection (my assumption here): How and to which degree influences this bias the result and therefore the interpretation of the poll results?