History questions not worth their own thread III

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In the English-speaking world, people almost invariably refer to the Czech Republic as, well, the Czech Republic, and rarely Czechia. France is almost invariably referred to as France, even in formal contexts.

To be fair, I don't think you can take historically established names into consideration. The English-speaking world referred to France as France before it even was a Republic.

However, it is a valid question to ask why they don't call it the Slovak Republic, for example (or some other recent country if there's a reason why that example doesn't work).
 
I would love to call the Czech Republic, 'Czechia'. It's more uniform.
However, it's a little hard when few people understand 'Czechia' the first time round and the the Czechs themselves have settled on 'Czech Republic' as their official English representation.

Spoiler :

 
JEELEN said:
But there's only one "Republic of China".
Completely missing the point of my question...

To be fair, I don't think you can take historically established names into consideration. The English-speaking world referred to France as France before it even was a Republic.

However, it is a valid question to ask why they don't call it the Slovak Republic, for example (or some other recent country if there's a reason why that example doesn't work).

So are you suggesting that our amnesia over the 'proper' informal name of Czech Republic is due to its political history? It does make sense that people's sense of popular geography is related to countries deemed politically relevant/independent, so to speak. Since Czechia's only been known as a part of the Habsburg monarchy or Czechoslovakia for the past 500 years this logic does have some appeal.
 
Yeah, I think that's a part of it. Also, when part of the Austrian Empire, the area was mostly referred to as Bohemia and Moravia, so, even as a region, we wouldn't have called it Czechia. Granted, that doesn't mean we couldn't have after Czechoslovakia split, just that it's an entirely different situation compared to long-established regions in English.
 
What caused the huge shift in mannerism in England between the 17th and 18th century? Men went from expressive and emotional, to well, England
 
On the other end, the English certainly prided themselves on their restrained and limited emotions during the 17th, and even 16th centuries.
 
In what sense were men in the England of Laurence Sterne not "expressive and emotional"?
Is there something comparable to Shakespeare's sonnets?
On the other end, the English certainly prided themselves on their restrained and limited emotions during the 17th, and even 16th centuries.
I've seen more restraint and limited emotions in schoolgirls
 
I would love to call the Czech Republic, 'Czechia'. It's more uniform.
However, it's a little hard when few people understand 'Czechia' the first time round and the the Czechs themselves have settled on 'Czech Republic' as their official English representation.

Spoiler :


When did Gollum become a Czech diplomat?
 
I've seen that the Mughal Empire is formable for the Timurids in EU3, so I was wondering (apart from Babur's ancestry), what was the relation between the Mughal Empire and the Timurid Empire?
 
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