History Questions Not Worth Their Own Thread VI

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Traitorfish,

So you basically claim, that Spain was not Spain before it was called Spain - right?

Aragon and Castile were not Spain, because they were not called Spain.

Well - in such case maybe Poland is among the oldest nations in Europe, because the name of it is very old.

The name "Poland" was for the first time applied to this country around years 990 - 1000.

And here is what a 12th century Saxon historian Helmold of Bosau wrote about Poland and Bohemia:

An excerpt from Helmold's "Chronicle of the Slavs", written between 1163 and 1172, chapter 1 "About the Division of the Slavs":

"(...) Bohemia has a king and warlike knighthood; they have a lot of churches and the people are dedicated to religious practices. Bohemia is divided into two bishoprics - Prague and Olomouc. Poland is a great country of Slavic people; it borders - as they say - with Ruthenia. It is divided into eight bishoprics*. In the past Poland had kings, but now it is ruled by dukes. The kinds of weapons and the methods of combat used by the Poles are the same as those of the Czechs. Called to war, the Poles are brave in battle, but exceedingly cruel in their robberies and murders. They spare neither monasteries, nor churches, nor cemeteries. This is why you can only get them involved in wars conducted by others, under the condition that you allow them to plunder the property which is kept in sacred places. Due to this fact it also happens, that driven by their appetite for plunder, they treat their allies as if they were enemies. (...)"

* Those 8 bishoprics of Poland at that time, were: Gniezno, Poznań, Włocławek, Płock, Cracow, Wrocław, Lubusz and Wolin.

Bohemia is an originally Slavic name, BTW - it is derived from "Boh" (one of versions for word "God" in Slavic languages).

So they don't really need to call their land "Czechia" to underline their Non-Germanness or something.
 
Traitorfish,

So you basically claim, that Spain was not Spain before it was called Spain - right?

Aragon and Castile were not Spain, because they were not called Spain.
That is not what I have argued, no. If you were not so wilfully illiterate, you would have noted that I distinguish between a "Spanish nation", a product of 19th century Spanish nationalism, and a "Spanish state", which I recognise as existing de facto from the early 18th century onwards.
 
I thought you was using the term nation in the meaning of state. So name "Spain" was not used before the early 18th century ???

BTW - Spanish nationalism is about as old as all other modern European nationalisms. No older and no younger.

Arguing which of modern European nationalisms is the oldest one, is thus pointless.

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Poland as a state existed already before 990 for some 50 years or more (and as a Christian state since 14 April 966).

However, at that time it was called "The State of Gniezno" or "The State of Mieszko" - from its first capital and its first Christian ruler respectively.

The name "Poland" is for the first time confirmed by archaeologists and historians on coins minted between years 990 and 1000.
 
I thought you was using the term nation in the meaning of state.
The ambiguity of the term "nation" was acknowledged implicitly, in noting that Spanish nationalism is a basically 19th century phenomenon, but we can reasonably talk about a "Spanish state" from the early 18th century.

So name "Spain" was not used before the early 18th century ???
It was, but it was largely aspirational. The monarchs styled themselves "Emperor of all the Spains", or various similar vanity-titles, but it had no real weight and was inconsistently applied. Some monarchs were very into being "Spanish", some were pretty indifference. (Ferdinand & Isabella seemed to have quite a strong belief in a "Spanish" Manifest Destiny, but Carlos I/Karl V didn't give much indication that he regarded his Iberian territories as being in some way more uniquely bound to each other than any of his myriad other domains. Further, it was never very well distinguished from Castilian chauvinism, Spain as "Castile, etc.", and so tended to be met with indifference or even hostility from the "other Spains" of Navarre, Aragon and Portugal.
 
Ok thank you for this info.

That was true of most major languages before the advent of modern communication or at least cheap printing and large-ish scale literacy. One cannot discount the enormous impact Martin Luther had on the standardization of the German language, but one also really wouldn't consider it even bordering on being a homogenized language until the late 19th or 20th century. Hell, they only just recently got their god-awful confusing spelling system sorted out, and even then you still have Schweizerdeutsch/Schwyzerdütsch/Schwiizertütsch/Schwitzertitsch.

In spite of the presence of the RAE Spanish maintains pretty stark differences between regional dialects, even down to the retention of archaic forms in some regions (vos in Central America, or vosotros in Peninsular, for example) where they are missing entirely in others. Even within the Peninsula, Galician and Andalucian can vary fairly significantly from the standard Madrileño/Castellano. French only retains the appearance of homogeneity because the ruling powers literally beat it into the nonconformists.
 
Regarding French language - it seems that Medieval French was in fact a collection of many dialects:

[...]

Actually many of these dialects have some speakers until modern times:
 
I don't think one can really call all of these "dialects" of French. Occitan is no more like French than it's like other Romance languages - I think it's closer to Catalan. It certainly doesn't sound like French.
 
Re the oldest language in Europe still in use, i am sure there are some others still around with more than 2000 years of history :mischief:

I chose 2000 with no special reason. Only the gospels would come to mind i suppose.
 
Latin is still the official language of a European state. Would imagine that Welsh and the like also have a similarly distant pedigree, if some level of looseness is allowed in categorising 'old Welsh' etc.
 
I don't think one can really call all of these "dialects" of French. Occitan is no more like French than it's like other Romance languages - I think it's closer to Catalan. It certainly doesn't sound like French.

Occitan is indeed a distinct language, and together with Catalan forms a subgroup of Romance languages.
 
Why is the crescent-moon-and-star a common symbol in Islam?
 
Re the oldest language in Europe still in use, i am sure there are some others still around with more than 2000 years of history :mischief:

I chose 2000 with no special reason. Only the gospels would come to mind i suppose.
My understanding is that modern Greek is a 19th century construction, not a 1st century survival. It resembles Classical dialects because it was designed to.
 
Why is the crescent-moon-and-star a common symbol in Islam?
It didn't used to be. Although there are scattered examples of crescent symbology in the early part of the second millennium, the first Muslim polity to really popularize the use of the star-and-crescent was the Ottoman Empire. It's not totally clear why this was a special Ottoman thing; some people have guessed about a connection to steppe iconography, specifically Tengriist, but that's not incredibly convincing to me.

Anyway, due to the Ottoman sultan's double-hat as khalifa, the symbol slowly became associated with Sunni Islam generally over the course of the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. After the Ottoman Empire broke up, and after various forms of pan-Islam became more popular in the 1950s and 1960s, the star-and-crescent was a ready-made symbol for new nationalist organizations to adopt, and so they did.
 
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