onejayhawk
Afflicted with reason
The question is raised, why did China develop a stable culture and Europe did not? Both have significant ethnic, geographic and linguistic diversity, yet one developed an identifiable central culture and the other remained fragmented. Why?
Two elements to consider:
1) China had a single written language
2) China had a functional meritocracy (anyone could test for a job in the bureaucracy)
Is these sufficient? Are both necessary? Discuss.
J
Two elements to consider:
1) China had a single written language
2) China had a functional meritocracy (anyone could test for a job in the bureaucracy)
Is these sufficient? Are both necessary? Discuss.
J