pboily
fingerlickinmathematickin
It's not an empirical result, it's an existence result: For a given a, there exists a function m which agrees with f for all s < a, and which predicts f a.e. after a, but good luck actually exhibiting that function m.
It's counter intuitive thanks to the Axiom of Choice, and as a result, is about as sensical as Banach-Tarski.
It's counter intuitive thanks to the Axiom of Choice, and as a result, is about as sensical as Banach-Tarski.