History Questions Not Worth Their Own Thread VII

Mesopotamian history is really my stronger part, and in my society I consider myself an expert to the subject.

But last week, while reading about Mari, I was shocked to find out that Jamhad ever existed.
I started reading about it on Wikipedia, and it seems like an important regional power of the time, though I can't recall ever hearing that name.

Trying to find an explanation for that, I want to ask here - Does anyone know if many of information about Jamhad comes from new discoveries?
I see that a year ago, the Wikipedia article about Jamhad was much thinner. Is there any practical reason for that?

I'm thinking article expansion. ;)

As per Mesopotamian history, I can recommend Van De Mieroop's A History of the Ancient Near East ca. 3000-323 BC. Very thorough introduction with excellent bibliography.
 
...General Admiral Nakhimov . At least ı think so ; will actually check an old book of mine .

turns they are two different ships on the same page . General Admiral as the first armoured cruiser ever built while Admiral Nakhimov that follows is the 2nd of the 4 ships ı counted in that book bearing the same name . So it's possible that there was some Russian Army general with the family name of Admiral .

royalties on the other hand hold many ranks simultenously ; ı would be real surprised if Kaiser Wilhelm was not a Marshall and a Grand Admiral at the same time .
 
In Austria, I believe, it is illegal to use imperial or noble titles, so Archduke Otto, the former imperial heir, was only ever referred to by the state as 'Otto Habsburg'. Go and read his Wikipedia article.
 
These people are the Avars and their language is Avar - they live in Dagestan:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Avar



Are they and their language in any way related to / descendants of Medieval Avars?

If not, then what's the story behind their name, just a coincidence? Is it an endonym?
I seem to remember Peter Heather mentioning in passing that they are indeed descendants of the Hungarian plain Avars, at least culturally. At that point I had to stop and wiki.
 
Why did Islam spread to SE Asia and India but not China? (Actually, did it ever spread to China in significant numbers?)
 
Afghanistan, Pakistan, and northern India were largely home to Buddhist kingdoms that were overrun by Muslim armies coming out of Persia. There was no easy/worthwhile route for said armies to march on China.

Islam mostly followed Arab traders into SE Asia. From there, the Arabs no longer dominated trade on routes into China. Fewer Muslim traders reaching the Middle Kingdom meant there was little, if any, religious presence to disseminate Islam.

There is a fairly significant Chinese Muslim minority - Han, not just Uyghur - in SW China. I stayed in a Muslim Chinese town in north Thailand that had a mosque and a muezzin calling prayers in the morning. My understanding is that Islam spread with Chinese traders who were in contact with Muslim traders on the route from Yunnan (SW China) through the mountains to Thailand and Burma.
 
So, they no longer appeared ever in public with titles?

Since the titles refer to monarchy and such and all the successor states are republics, that would be a tad bit redundant. But, that said, some of their titles are still in use. Should be easy to google if you are looking for a particular Habsburg. (Not sure why certain English are intent on calling them Hapsburg).

In Austria, I believe, it is illegal to use imperial or noble titles, so Archduke Otto, the former imperial heir, was only ever referred to by the state as 'Otto Habsburg'. Go and read his Wikipedia article.

Actually, the name is Von Habsburg. I'm not sure how you would outlaw 'Von'; it appears in plenty of names, but soit.
 
Actually, the Austrian Habsburgs were von Habsburg-Lothringen, but still, the post-war laws on nobility in Austria and Germany are different. In Germany, they allow former nobles to keep their aristocratic titles as their surnames, e.g. Franz Herzog von Bayern, but in Austria they do not, e.g. Doktor Otto Habsburg-Lothringen.
 
There's a difference between title and name that apparently eludes Austria. Not that Habsburg-Lothringen sounds any less aristocratic without the Von. So it would appear the idea was an optical illusion? One would think the disappearance of the actual property would suffice. For instance, the Dutch king is called Willem-Alexander van Oranje-Nassau, even though those principalities have long since gone. So I'm not sure who the creators of this law thought would be fooled by the outlawing of 'Von'.
 
The use of "von" was legally restricted in the imperial era, though, so it was never just a name to begin with.
 
And "van" has not historically been restricted in the Netherlands as far a know. (The Netherlands were also relatively late in formalizing family names.)
 
Technically, the Dutch king is called King Willem-Alexander (plus other forenames), because as a member of royalty, he has no surname, but he is the head of the Huis van Oranje-Nassau, as King of the Netherlands. His father, Prince Claus, was of House van Amsberg, so presumably King Willem and his family are too.
 
It's the same in the UK; royalty in the direct line of succession do not have surnames, though some of them use 'Windsor' or the names of their duchies/princedoms for practical purposes, such as Capt. Harry Wales of the Blues and Royals.
 
When that tradition start, out of interest? The Tudors and Stewarts seemed to have surnames, so it wasn't simply a case of the British royals declining to adopt the modern practice of fixed surnames. Is it maybe something that came with the Hanoverians?
 
Both Henry VII and Elizabeth Woodville were born with surnames, so that might be why the Tudors are often associated with Tudor as a surname, rather than as a dynastic house. I'm not so sure about the Stewarts/Stuarts though.
 
I can imagine it would have started with William and Mary; it might have been an advantage not to make it too obvious that there were Dutch rulers on the throne.
 
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