Were Ancient Macedonians Greek?

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Where would Americans fit on that chart?

Native or modern?

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As for modern Americans, check here:

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3051415/figure/fig02/

Abstract

The current U.S. population represents an amalgam of individuals originating mainly from four continental regions (Africa, Europe, Asia and America). To study the genetic ancestry and compare with self-declared ancestry we have analyzed paternally, maternally and bi-parentally inherited DNA markers sensitive for indicating continental genetic ancestry in all four major U.S. American groups. We found that self-declared U.S. Hispanics and U.S. African Americans tend to show variable degrees of continental genetic admixture among the three genetic systems, with evidence for a marked sex-biased admixture history. Moreover, for these two groups we observed significant regional variation across the country in genetic admixture. In contrast, self-declared U.S. European and U.S. Asian Americans were genetically more homogeneous at the continental ancestry level. Two autosomal ancestry-sensitive markers located in skin pigmentation candidate genes showed significant differences in self-declared U.S. African Americans or U.S. European Americans, relative to their assumed parental populations from Africa or Europe. This provides genetic support for the importance of skin color in the complex process of ancestry identification.

Self-declared ancestry of Americans is apparently in most cases quite consistent with their continental origin:

So these declarations are quite accurate on continental level (too bad that they did not research national level within Europe, for example):



So when they self-report their ancestry, they usually guess correctly from which continent they came from. :p

Hispanic-Americans and African-Americans have more of paternal European ancestry than they have of maternal European ancestry.

This can be explained by fact that more often European men had children with Native American or African women than inversely.

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Check also here:

http://blogs.discovermagazine.com/gnxp/2011/01/race-and-genetics-in-the-americas/

Self-identified whites in Brazil usually have mostly European paternal ancestry, but mostly Native American or African maternal ancestry:

Self-identified blacks in Brazil also have quite a lot of European paternal ancestry (however, less than half and much less than whites):



And this illustrates from which parts of Africa come African-Americans:

 
Yes, but again, genetics are problematic. Where would Americans fit on that chart?

Dealing with genetics on such a minuscule scale, both geographically and temporally, essentially makes that data less than worthless.

And then the other obvious part is that identity is not defined by genetics anyway.

And I know it's pointless trying to get any kind of a decent conversation out of Domen on the subjects of identity and historical linguistics so that's all I'll say in this thread.
 
Except that I wasn't talking about identity and historical linguistics in recent posts. I was talking about genetics.

When I talk about genetics, I talk about genetics - not about identity or linguistics.

But if talking about identity - modern Macedonians don't identify as "Fyromians". They identify as Macedonians.

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Coming back to Americans - if you have even very pale-white skin, it doesn't mean that you didn't have any African ancestors at all:

http://www.theroot.com/articles/his...stry_in_a_white_person_the_likely_reason.html

QUESTION:

“I have had both of my parents’ ancestry tested by 23andMe, and I have been tested as well. I am ostensibly European, but both parents received West African-ancestry DNA results. I am 1.3 percent West African, which Doug McDonald of the University of Illinois verified as being of Yoruba origins.

“My father has 1.4 percent West African ancestry and my mother around 0.3 to 0.6 percent. Does this mean that one of my great-great-grandparents (I’m not sure how many ‘greats’) was from Africa? Or does this African DNA come from the more distant past, and is it widespread among Europeans? I have no genealogy records to go from, so I am at a loss.

“Both sides of my family have deep roots in the American South: My mother is Cajun, Irish and Canary Islander from southeast Louisiana, and my father's family is from all over, mainly southeast Texas. His great-grandmother was adopted in Indiana in the late 1800s and moved to Texas with her adopted family. She is listed in the 1910 census as living with them in a mostly black area.

ANSWER:

Determining How Recent Your African Ancestry Is

In the South, the infamous “one-drop rule” was once employed during the Jim Crow era to classify African Americans as anyone who had one drop of African blood. Had there been DNA testing during that time, the segregated South would have looked quite different, since we now know that some people who identify as primarily white actually have some African ancestry as well. New information brought to light by new DNA-testing technologies opens up a new conversation on race and identity.

As you noted, there have been several studies showing that DNA results of many African Americans indicate that they have between 20 and 30 percent European ancestry. These results reflect the fact that many slave owners fathered children by their slaves. DNA tests also show that the opposite of this scenario can be true: Those who identify as primarily white can have African ancestry. 23andMe published a study (pdf) based on its own dataset that concluded that approximately 3 to 4 percent of their customers who identified as being of primarily European descent had at least one ancestor in the last 10 generations who could be traced back to Africa.

Autosomal DNA tests reveal these connections by testing across the entire genome and looking at more recent ancestry. From an autosomal DNA test, you can get an admixture, which shows your ethnicity broken down by percentages. Your test was done by 23andMe and your admixture results were interpreted by its Ancestry Composition system. Other genetic-genealogy testing companies, such as FamilyTreeDNA and AncestryDNA, offer similar tests that also give you admixture results.

Although some DNA tests probe into deeper ancestry, back thousands of years, the autosomal test that you took from 23andMe generally shows more recent ancestry, quite reliably over the last 100 to 200 years—in your case, since the time of slavery, when this “admixing” most likely occurred.

Given this information, the African DNA identified in your test is not from ancient ancestors (after all, 50,000 or so years ago, all of our ancestors were Africans, but that ancient DNA has largely disappeared) but, rather, from more recent ancestors, people whose actual identities you could find if you could construct a detailed family tree of ancestors who lived in the last couple of centuries.

Taking a closer look at the results you sent us, we see that your father has the highest amount of sub-Saharan ancestry, at 1.4 percent, all identified as originating in West Africa. Your mother has a smaller percentage of sub-Saharan African DNA, with 0.5 percent identified as West African and 0.1 percent as unassigned sub-Saharan. You also provided us with 23andMe’s chromosome view, which shows the breakdown of ethnicity by each pair of chromosomes.

Interestingly, the chromosome view of your fathers’ results shows larger bands of West African ancestry on two different chromosomes. The bands on your mother’s DNA are much smaller. This suggests that the African ancestry on your father’s side may be more recent than your mother’s.
 
Except that I wasn't talking about identity and historical linguistics in recent posts. I was talking about genetics.

When I talk about genetics, I talk about genetics - not about identity or linguistics.

But if talking about identity - modern Macedonians don't identify as "Fyromians". They identify as Macedonians.

exhibit a for why I don't enter these threads ^

You were talking about why the Macedonians genetically cannot be considered Greeks. Except genetics have nothing to do with who is and is not Greek. Because: a) genetics aren't effective in such minute parameters, and b) identity/ethnicity does not work that way.

Of course this is something you've been told many many many many many many many times in various WH threads over the years, and you're going to just ignore me and talk about...whatever anyway, so why do I even bother?
 
Domen, my point is that you have an awful lot of different genetic profiles in people who are all equally 'American'. So assuming that ancient Macedonians must conform to a single genetic profile is mistaken.
 
I do enjoy the conclusion from Domen's chart though:

If modern Macedonians are very close genetically to modern Greeks, then neither is likely to be much closer than the other genetically to the ancient Macedonians. Ultimately it doesn't mean much, but it's one less argument for wacky nationalists to trot out.
 
It would be surprising if modern Macedonians were not very close genetically to modern Greeks.
 
the battle of Chaeronea proved what the Greeks thought of the Macedonians, they considered them Barbarians! although the Athenians called most half or non Greeks that, anyway.
It surprises me how vehemently they maintain that Alexander was Greek, having fought his father prior to that. The only reason must be that the Macedonians-not Athenians, or other Greeks- accomplished what the Greeks deemed impossible, they conquered the Persian Empire. After that they automatically became Greeks, how convenient.
 
Hello (1st post here)

No I was talking that Macedonians are similar genetically to Greeks. But in this case I was referring to modern Slavic Macedonians.

Because genetic data for Ancient ones is not available.


FYROM's (the self-declared "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia") propagandists on the internet and NOT officially, are claiming that they relate to the ancient Macedons, and modern Greeks are of african origins. They're using a 2001 DNA research by Antonio Arnaiz-Villena, which among other things it was "proving" that the Japanese are IDENTICAL to south and west africans.
The a summary of the long dropped Arnaiz-Vellena DNA research is being hosted here http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/11260506, it is NOT accepted as valid (simply is being hosted), and it's being used in the social media (not officially) by FYROM's propagandists, to "prove" to the world that they relate to the ancient Macedons.
Note here that the Arnaiz-Villena DNA research created a HUGE scandal among the international community of geneticists, a scandal which can easily be found simply by googleing it.

2001 - This is how the editor of the genetics magazine which published the Antonio Arnaiz-Villena research reacted to the readers' and scientists' complaigns for publishing this research, following his apologies;
"...ignore the article in question or preferably physically remove the pages...”


Yet;
This paper (read the article entitled "dropped genetics paper lacked scientific merit") http://www.readcube.com/articles/10.1038/415115b, is the one that trashed the Arnaiz-Villena research (which was relating Islanders to Congolese, Greeks to Africans, Africans to Japanese etc.) to oblivion and made it an INTERNATIONAL JOKE.
Just read the last three paragraphs of this paper !!



A 6-year DNA research conducted by their own Skopje Forensics Medicine Institute, proved that they relate with the Bulgarians. http://www.b92.net/eng/news/society.php?yyyy=2012&mm=01&dd=22&nav_id=78407
The results of this research showed that that the residents of the self-declared "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia" are Slavs;
“The analysis of the data has showed that residents of Macedonia have the most similar DNA with Bulgarians and Serbs, Croats with Bosnian and Serbian population while Kosovo Albanians have the fewest similarities with the others.”



In contrast to the above,
An official DNA research (part of a larger research conducted in the wider Mediterranean area) conducted by several institutions such as the Sranford University, the Russian Academy of Sciences (Moscow), the University of Pavia etc., proved 2-3 years ago, that the DNA of the southern Italians is indentical to the Greek one, as result of the colonization of Italy by the Greeks in antiquity.

This research has been conducted by the most respected geneticists globally (such as Cavalli-Sforza), it is being accepted globally and has never been in dispute.

Therefor the scientists of the institutions that participated this research mentioned above, taking into account the well recorded political, economical, social, cultural, military etc. historical data, and using the results of the DNA research, came to the obvious and only logical conclusion that the nowadays greeks are direct descendants of their ancient ancestors.

[IMPORTANT NOTE: I'm not on my computer writting this (on vacations). I will provide missing links as soon as possible.]




I also feel it would be useful to quote statements and parts of books written on the matter of the ancient Macedons, their origins and the origins of the modern self-declared "Macedonians" (who of course are of slavic origins);

1. Eugene Borza
He's one of those who present the ancient Macedonians as a greek tribe, isolated from the other greeks, and who (Borza) because of some "heretic" views on this matter, he's largely being used by FYROM's propagandists. He writes;


Macedonian Redux p.260
"...On the other hand the (so-called) "Slavomacedonians" (Slavs entered Balkans centuries after the demise of the Ancient Kingdom of Alexander) are newly emergent people in search of a past, to help them legitimise their precarious present, as they attempt to establish their singular identity in a world dominated historically by Greeks, Serbs and Bulgarians. The 20th century of a "Macedonian ethnicity" and its recent evolution into independent statehood following the Yugoslavic collapse of 1991, has followed a rocky road.
In order to survive the vicissitudes of the Balkan history and politics, the "Slavomacedonians" (who HAVE NO Macedonian HISTORY), NEED THEIR OWN SO CALLED MACEDONIAN ETHNICITY which evolved for NO MORE than a century, and thus it seemed natural for them and appropriate to call their NEW country "Macedonia" AND TO ATTEMPT TO provide SOME cultural references to bolster ethnic survival..."

Provide SOME cultural references..."?

These people want war with Greece, because according to their UNHISTORICAL propaganda "...Greece "stole" part of their land..." (!!!), refering to the original ancient Greek kingdom of Macedonia (always settled in Greece, how could it move),
while the land this country is settled is PAEONIA, which was never EVER Macedonia (two separate DIFFERENT regions),
AND WHILE their ancestors are thoroughly recorded and flawlessly documented as Slav/Bulgarians, who arrived the 7th century AD.

This whole situation is a really bad joke...

and Borza continues;
"...Modern Slavs, both from Former Yug. Rep. of Macedonia and Bulgarians cannot establish a link with antiquity, in contrast with the Greeks.
The Slavs entered the Balkans centuries after the demise of the Ancient Kingdom of Alexander.
Only the most radical-right nationalists Slavic emigrants of the US, Canada and Australia even attempt to establish connection with antiquity..."




2. Alexander the Great, addressing to his troops before the battle of Issus (Arrian, "Alexander´s anabasis", 2.a7)
"...There are Greek troops, to be sure, in Persian service - but how different is their cause from ours.
They will be fighting for pay - and not much of it at that.
We, on the contrary, SHALL FIGHT FOR GREECE, and our hearts will be in it.
As for our foreign troops - Thracians, Paeonians, Illyrians, Agrianes - they are the best and stoutest soldiers in Europe…"


Paeonians as from Paeonia; the land of the self-declared "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia" is settled by 100% and which was NEVER EVER Macedonia.
Although they don't relate to the ancient Paeonians for their ancestors are Slav/Bulgarians who arrived the 7th century AD, they OBVIOUSLY can't even claim the land this country is settled, has anything to do with Macedonia.



3. Robin Lane Fox, Prof. Dr., Oxford University
"...Macedonia was a Greek speaking kingdom in northern Greece, populated by people using Greek names and worshiping Greek gods._
Those who live in Skopje and say that is Macedon and Alexander's homeland, are as ignorant and outrageous as if someone was to say that Oxford University was really in Belarus, and Oxford was Minsk..."



4. Donald Kagan, Prof.Dr. Yale University
"...We know the Macedonians were *profoundly* Greeks. That is to say they were greek speaking people, and ethnically they were Greeks..."


5. Hans-Joachim Gehrke,
Prof. Dr., President of the German Archaeological Institute, Berlin
"...Macedonia and Macedonian Greeks have been located for at least 2,500 years just where the modern Greek province of Macedonia is. Exactly this same relation is true for Attica and Athenian Greeks, Argos and Argive Greeks, Corinth and Corinthian Greeks. etc..."


6. René Guerdan, French Historian
"...The Macedonians are and have always been Greeks, and the creation of a socialist "Republic of Macedonia" with Skopje as its capital is only a sad farce..."


7. David H. Levinson,
Cultural Anthropologist, Encyclopaedia of World Cultures, p. 239
"...It should be noted that there is no connection between the ancient Macedonians of Alexander the Great who were related to other Greek [Hellenic] tribes, and the modern "macedonians" of today of the "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia" [FYROM] who are of Slavic origin and related to the Bulgarians..."



8. Stephen G. Miller, Prof., Dr., Berkeley University
Who is refering to the self-declared "Republika Macedonija" which fabricated maps attempting to present PAEONIA (the region this country is settled) as ONE united region with Macedonia-Greece (Alexander's homeland), and to the banknotes this country circulated with the Greek city of Thessalonike on them];
"... I wonder what we would conclude if a certain large island off the southeast coast of the United States started to call itself Florida, and emblazoned its currency with images of Disney World and distributed maps showing the Greater Florida..."


9. Elisabeth Barker
[ The Royal Institute of International Affairs, year 1950, p.10 ]
"...All that can safely be said is that during the last eighty years many MORE seem to have considered themselves Bulgarian, or closely linked to Bulgaria (she reports about the people of the Former Yugoslav Republic region which Josef Tito started calling "Macedonia" the 1950s), than have considered themselves Serbian, or closely linked to Serbia (or Yugoslavia). Only the people of the Skoplje region, in the north west, have ever shown much tendency to regard themselves as Serbs.
There is NO DOUBT that they are southern Slavs; they have a language, or a group of varying dialects, that is grammatically akin to Bulgarian but phonetically in some respects akin to Serbian, and which has certain quite distinctive features of its own (from the proto-Slavic language)..."




The self-declared "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia" is settled on Paeonia, their Slav/Bulgarian ancestors arrived the 7th AD, they speak and write Slav/Bulgarian, theyhave Slav/Bulgarian names, you have ZERO (a total HISTORICAL EMPTYNESS) recorded history as Macedons until some decades ago, their own research proved them to have similar dna with the other Slavic populations of this area,
and the list of characteristics of them not having what the ancient Greek Macedons had, which the greeks today still have, goes on n on n on n on n on....
Think for example that the ancient Macedons were participating all four Panhellenic games from the 5th BC (recorded), games that were strictly for greeks to paarticipate.
They were accepted as greeks long before the times of Alexander the Great, his father's Philip, his mother's Olympias, his teacher's Aristotle, and his father's political opposer the Athenian spokesman Demosthenes.



I could continue writting a whole book on this ridiculous matter which emerged after the fall of former Yugoslavia, but at this point I won't.
I only want to ask from all to respect history. This a simple issue yet FYROM's propaganda made it a very delicate one.
History is well documented, flawessly recorded and none can change it.




Closing I would like to present (or remind to others who might be aware of) an important archaeological finding, the "Pella Curse Tablet".

This archaelogical evidence was found in the city of Pella (Greece) the 1980s (before the fall of Yugoslavia become even a thought), and it is proving beyond ANY doubt that the ancient Macedons before adopting Koine Greek (as all the greek world did during Alexander's reign), they were speaking (and writting of course) the Doric Greek dialect, putting this way an end to any claims regarding a non-greek "Macedonian language".
It is from the 4th century BC, it is before Koine Greek and it is written by a simple female citizen (found in a poor grave):

"...ΘΕΤΙΜΑΣ ΚΑΙ ΔΙΟΝΥΣΟΦΩΝΤΟΣ ΤΟ ΤΕΛΟΣ ΚΑΙ ΤΟΝ ΓΑΜΟΝ ΚΑΤΑΓΡΑΦΩ ΚΑΙ ΤΑΝ ΑΛΛΑΝ ΠΑΣΑΝ ΓYΝΑΙΚΩΝ ΚΑΙ ΧΗΡΑΝ ΚΑΙ ΠΑΡΘΕΝΩΝ ΜΑΛΙΣΤΑ ΔΕ ΘΕΤΙΜΑΣ ΚΑΙ ΠΑΡΚΑΤΤΙΘΕΜΑΙ ΜΑΚΡΩΝΙ ΚΑΙ ΤΟΙΣ ΔΑΙΜΟΣΙ ΚΑΙ ΟΠΟΚΑ ΕΓΟ ΤΑΥΤΑ ΔΙΕΛΕΞΑΙΜΙ ΚΑΙ ΑΝΑΓΝΟΙΗΝ ΠΑΛΙΝ ΑΝΟΡΟΞΑΣΑ ΤΟΚΑ ΓΑΜΑΙ ΔΙΟΝΥΣΟΦΩΝΤΑ ΠΡΟΤΕΡΟΝ ΔΕ ΜΗ ΓΑΡ ΛΑΒΟΙ ΑΛΛΑΝ ΓΥΝΑΙΚΑ ΑΛΛΗ ΕΜΕ ΔΕ ΣΥΝΚΑΤΑΓΗΡΑΣΑΙ ΔΙΟΝΥΣΟΦΩΝΤΙ ΚΑΙ ΜΗΔΕΜΙΑΝ ΑΛΛΑΝ ΙΚΕΤΙΣ ΥΜΩΝ ΓΙΝΟΜΑΙ ΦΙΛΑΝ ΟΙΚΤΙΡΕΤΕ ΔΑΙΜΟΝΕΣ ΦΙΛΟΙ..."

Perfect greek language.


The main questions are;
1. Is it appropriate for these people to seriously claim to be descendants of the ancient Macedons, when EVERYTHING is proving them to be Slavs (who arrived the 7th AD, a whole 1000 years after Alexander's era)?
2. Is it acceptable that based on this unhistorical and outrageous propaganda, they went further claiming (and threatening Greece with war) from Greece the actual region of the ancient Greek Kingdom of Macedonia as "stolen land"?
3. What should Greece do about this?

NOTE THAT ancient historians, thoroughly described the limits of the ancient greek kingdom of Macedonia, as bellow:
Livy’s account of the creation of the Roman province of Macedonia (45.29.7 and 12) makes clear that the Paionians lived north of those mountains (which form today the geographically natural northern limits of Greece) and south of the Dardanians who were in today’s Kosovo.
Strabo (7. frag 4) is even more succinct in saying that Paionia was north of Macedonia and the only connection from one to the other was (and is today) through the narrow gorge of the Axios (or the Slavic Vardar) River.

Or as prof. Stephen G. Miller (Berkeley University) says;
"...Let it be said once more: the region of ancient Paionia was a part of the Macedonian empire. So were Ephesos and Tyre and Palestine and Memphis and Babylon and Taxila and dozens more. They may thus have become "Macedonian" temporarily, but none was ever "Macedonia"..."
 
Welcome to the forum!

while the land this country is settled is PAEONIA, which was never EVER Macedonia (two separate DIFFERENT regions)
the land of the self-declared "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia" is settled by 100% and which was NEVER EVER Macedonia.

You are mistaken, modern area of the Republic of Macedonia WAS called Macedonia already in Ancient times, following the Roman conquest:

http://www.academia.edu/357647/The_...ges_Defining_Chronology_Geography_and_Factors







So territory where this modern country is located is called Macedonia at least as long as Palestine is called Palestine.

Palestine is a name given to Israel by the Romans, just like Macedonia is the name given to Paeonia by the Romans.

But you forget that large part of modern population of Vardar Macedonia (i.e. FYROM) originate from Aegean Macedonia, which is now part of Greece.

Have you already forgotten that at the beginning of the 20th century Slavs were the largest ethnic group of Aegean Macedonia ???

Greek government deported majority of Slavs from Aegean Macedonia during first decades of the 1900s. They settled in Bulgaria and Vardar.

So many people who now live in Vardar Macedonia, have ancestors who lived in Aegean Macedonia - including areas around Salonica.

MORE IMPORTANTLY - Slavic language of inhabitants of Macedonia has been called "Macedonian language" at least since year 1603 (link):

http://forums.civfanatics.com/showthread.php?t=526187

So contrary to what you claim - these people didn't start to be called Macedonians recently. They are called Macedonians already for centuries.

his research has been conducted by the most respected geneticists globally (such as Cavalli-Sforza), it is being accepted globally and has never been in dispute.

Even your "most respected geneticist" Cavalli-Sforza shows, that Greeks are most closely related (genetically) to Yugoslavians (including Macedonians):

http://greek-dna-sub-saharan-myth.org/greek-dna.html



FIG. 23 - From Cavalli-Sforza et al. "The History and Geography of Human Genes" [47], page 268, figure 5.5.1. Genetic tree of 26 European populations. Greeks grouped with other European and Mediterranean populations. Fst distances are based on an average of 88 genes. [Fixation index (Fst) is a measure of population differentiation, genetic distance, based on genetic polymorphism data, such as single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) or microsatellites.]

As you can see, Greeks cluster most closely with "Yugoslavians" (but if he is such a respected geneticists, then I wonder why did he treat all Yugoslavians as one group - considering that Yugoslavians consist of many ethnic groups, which are genetically different from each other):



It should be noted that Macedonians are genetically closer to Greeks than the rest of Yugoslavians.

=================================================

And when it comes to Y-DNA haplogroups (they don't tell about genetic similarity as a whole but only about common male ancestors):

Notice that differences between various Greek groups are larger than differences between some Greek groups (as well as Greek average) and Macedonians:



Frequencies of various Y Chromosome haplogroups among Macedonians are intermediate between Serbs / Greeks / Bulgarians.

==================================================

Check also this:

http://dienekes.blogspot.com/2009/11/finally-structure-in-haplogroup-r1a.html

Interestingly, the Slavs of FYROM have an R-M458 frequency of 3.8%, barely different from that of Greeks at large, suggesting that (i) the claims of some Greek nationalists that the Slavs of FYROM are newcomers to the Balkans are wrong, just as (ii) the claim of some FYROMian nationalists that they are markedly different from Greeks are wrong. The actual truth is that the Slavs of FYROM are largely of old Balkan (pre-Slavic) stock who adopted a non-Balkan Slavic language, just as the modern Turks are largely of old Anatolian (pre-Turkish) stock who adopted a non-Anatolian Turkic language.

==================================================

R1a M458 haplogroup is most common among Poles, Czechs and Lusatian Sorbs in Germany:

55.1% of Polish males have R1a (see the chart below), of whom 26.6% have M458 (including 17.2% of L260, which is a variant of M458):

http://s006.radikal.ru/i215/1304/c6/9b1c4260cc94.jpg



Here is a map showing distribution of M458 (you can see highest frequencies in Poland, Czechia, Moravia and Lusatia):



That area with very high frequency of R1a M458 in East Germany, just across the Polish border, are Sorbs (or Germanized Sorbs):

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sorbs

Sorbs have probably the highest % of R1a out of all ethnic groups in Europe - 63,4% of Sorbian males have R1a (sample size - 112 men):

http://www.forumbiodiversity.com/sh...-their-origins?p=341380&viewfull=1#post341380

and modern Greeks are of african origins.

Technically, everyone is of African origins.

People outside of Africa are descendants of ca. 5% of African population who expanded into Eurasia and beyond - see my posts in the links below:

http://forums.civfanatics.com/showpost.php?p=13328603&postcount=39

http://forums.civfanatics.com/showthread.php?t=529797&page=3
 
Thank you for welcoming me... :)

You seem like having origins from FYROM. I don't say this as a bad thing.
I'm just mentioning this coz your reply is (...somehow...) pointing this way...
You're adopting FYROM's thesis', that almost ALL of them are simply lies and misinterpretations of well known ancient texts.
On the other hand you could be a guy doubting everything... That's ok too.
But doubting has its limitations.


Welcome to the forum!




You are mistaken, modern area of the Republic of Macedonia WAS called Macedonia already in Ancient times, following the Roman conquest:

http://www.academia.edu/357647/The_...ges_Defining_Chronology_Geography_and_Factors



Firsrt of all the link you're providing is from a FYROM historian named Jelena Jaric, Born on 26th of May 1985 in Skopje.
http://ceu.academia.edu/JelenaJaric
You really presenting this to me as a reliable source?
No, this is not accepted.

The "expert scientists" of Skopje (now that's a Macedonian name for a city as all of their cities; Delčevo, Kočani, Probištip, Štip :eek2:) who are leading this idiotic, unhistorical sad farce, these guys are proposing (among other idiocies) that the ancient Macedons were speaking SLAVIC for God's sake. HAving ZERO (0) evidences.
Nothing!! Like saying the Marsians visited Earth last evening.
A complete emptyness of evidences, and while EVERYTHING has been found that is of the Macedons was/is written in greek.



So territory where this modern country is located is called Macedonia at least as long as Palestine is called Palestine.

No, that's not true.

You are talking about the Roman provinces of the Common Era (CE), as the text you provide is clearly stating,
while I'm talking of the ancient Greek Kingdom of Macedonia of Alexander the Great, his father's Philip and even the one of Alexander the 1st.
As you understand there's a close to a whole 1000 years time period between this and the Roman provinces.

Besides all that, even if the Romans included Paeonia to their Macedonian province, they only did it for their own ease.
You understand that a province which is including many different territories, it will be named from the one that is dominating the others.
How could they call it?
"Roman Province of Paeonia" which just happens to include the "insignificant" region of Macedonia?
They named the whole province after Macedonia. It was a one way road naming it as that.

Yet this doesn't mean that;
1. the Romans by including Paeonia to their province of Macedonia,
they were refering to Paeonia as to the ancient Greek Kingdom of Macedonia, which they ALREADY KNEW it didn't include Paeonia (read Strabo and Livy bellow). They were two distinct historical regions within one province, one dominating the other.

2. it also does not mean that the conquerers of this region (Romans, Slavs, Ottomans)
apply to any tradition or ancient culture, which is refering to the Paeones or to the Macedones.


These can't be ignored; and they are indeniable proofs that the Romans of course KNEW which is Macedonia and which Paeonia;
Livy’s account of the creation of the Roman province of Macedonia (45.29.7 and 12) makes clear that the Paionians lived north of those mountains (which form today the geographically natural northern limits of Greece) and south of the Dardanians who were in today’s Kosovo.

Strabo (7. frag 4) is even more succinct in saying that Paionia was north of Macedonia and the only connection from one to the other was (and is today) through the narrow gorge of the Axios (or the Slavic "Vardar") River.

The message is clear; Paeonia and Macedonia were (still are) two distinct and different regions.

Let me remind you here that these people are OUTRAGEOUSLY claiming (TODAY) to be Alexander's descendants !!
Everything we'll discuss here, has to be based on this (UNHISTORICAL) claim by their side.



The Paeones were not Macedons and most certainly they were not Slavs.
The Slavs with their arrival the 7th AD, pushed away the inhabitants of Paeonia, whoever they were, and took over this region.
They themselves (the Slavs) NEVER claimed that they were living in Macedonia nor that they are Macedons,
until their descendants did it some decades ago.
NONE of the conquerers of this region EVER claimed that they are Macedons,
from the times the Romans first stepped foot, until more than 17 centuries later, after the Balkan Wars the early 20th century.
It was a Bulgarian idea of the early 20th century. The Bulgarians having their eye on this region, attempted to name Paeonia to Macedonia with the nowadays results.

Also we HAVE to take into account that Alexander himself was refering to Paeonia as "FOREIGN LANDS",
refering to the Paionians soldiers as "foreign troops" coming from the CONQUERED "foreign lands", meaning NOT Macedonian lands;

Alexander the Great, addressing to his troops before the battle of Issus (Arrian, "Alexander´s anabasis", 2.a7)
"...There are Greek troops, to be sure, in Persian service - but how different is their cause from ours.
They will be fighting for pay - and not much of it at that.
We, on the contrary, SHALL FIGHT FOR GREECE, and our hearts will be in it.
As for our foreign troops - Thracians, Paeonians, Illyrians, Agrianes - they are the best and stoutest soldiers in Europe…"


Paeonians as from Paeonia; the land of the self-declared "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia" is settled by 100% and which was NEVER EVER Macedonia, no matter if the Romans included Paeonia in the same province with Macedonia, under the name "Macedonia", they were two distinct regions.


IMPORTANT NOTE;
I also should mention here that in the self-declared "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia" as a whole,
there's NOT ONE archaeological finding, proving permanent inhabitation of the Macedons on this region. NOT EVEN A TRACE.
Only exception to that is the ancient greek city of Heraclea Lyngistis (the Slavic "Bitola"),
which is settled a few miles from the greek borders, and got within Yugoslav territory after the Balkan Wars Treaties.



So, this
Palestine is a name given to Israel by the Romans, just like Macedonia is the name given to Paeonia by the Romans.
doesn't really mean anything...

But you forget that large part of modern population of Vardar Macedonia (i.e. FYROM) originate from Aegean Macedonia, which is now part of Greece.

I would avoid using this term if I were you.
There's no place named "Aegean Macedonia".

It was the Nazis the early 1940s who named this region after this name.

They were planning to pass it to their at the time allies the Yugoslavs. When J.Tito decided to go to war against Axis
this region was givven by the Nazis to the Bulgarians (not for long).
The Nazis distibuted large territories to all their local allies (Italians, Bulgarian). Yugoslavs and Bulgarians always wanted a way to the Aegean Sea.

Today the radical-right ultranationalistic propagadists of the "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia", unearthed this "made in Nazis" OFFENSIVE and FAULSE term, and they unhistorically are using it against Greece.

There's no place or term with this name in Global Geography NOR in Global History.


Greek government deported majority of Slavs from Aegean Macedonia during first decades of the 1900s. They settled in Bulgaria and Vardar.

So many people who now live in Vardar Macedonia, have ancestors who lived in Aegean Macedonia - including areas around Salonica.

AGAIN;There's no place named "Aegean Macedonia".
It was the Nazis the early 1940s who named this region after this name,
planning to pass it ti the Yugoslavs ans finally passing it to the Bulgarians.
There's no place or term with this name in Global Geography NOR in Global History.


So? There were Turks, Albanians, Vlachs, Bulgarians and Jews too (among the Greeks).
...And why NONE of the people with ethnicities above NEVER claimed to be "Macedonians"?

You are forgetting that the Slavs remained after the Ottomans conquered this region,
and also the people with the ethnicities above remained too.

The greek government after the Balkan Wars, didn't just pushed away those people.
Greece complied to the Treaties signed by all sides, as all countries did.

You should see how Bulgaria, Turkey and Yogoslavia treated the greeks.
The Turks gifted the greeks two genocides.
Same thing tried the Bulgarians, who though they tried hard (killing tens of thousands of greeks), they missed the term "genocide" by an inch.

So the greeks got pushed away by Turks, Bulgarians and Yugoslavs too, as you should have known.
This is known as "exchange of population", and it always follow wars between neighbors.


MORE IMPORTANTLY - Slavic language of inhabitants of Macedonia has been called "Macedonian language" at least since year 1603 (link):

The so-called "Macedonian language" (an actula joke) is among the South Slavic Languages and therefor is only "Macedonian" in paper.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavic_languages
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/South_Slavic_languages

The Macedons were and still are speaking Greek (undeniable proven fact).

As all know languages are being followed (accompanied) and defined by their alphabets.

Two examples of Cyrillic alphabets:
Russian (Cyrillic Alphbet): А а, Б б, В в, Г г, Д д, Е е, Ё ё, Ж ж, З з, И и, Й й, К к, Л л, М м, Н н, О о, П п, Р р, С с, Т т, У у, Ф ф, Х х, Ц ц, Ч ч, Ш ш, Щ щ, Ъ ъ, Ы ы, Ь ь, Э э, Ю ю, Я я.

So-called "Macedonian" (aka CYRILLIC Alhabet) А а, Б б, В в, Г г, Д д, Ѓ ѓ, Е е, Ж ж, З з, Ѕ ѕ, И и, Ј ј, К к, Л л, Љ љ, М м, Н н, Њ њ, О о, П п, Р р, С с, Т т, Ќ ќ, У у, Ф ф, Х х, Ц ц, Ч ч, Џ џ, Ш ш.

The Cyrillic Alphabet was introduced (first found) during the 9th century AD , just 1000 years ago, by two Greek monks, in order to help the SLAVS who until then had no alphabet.

The Greek alphabet that the ancient Macedons were using first introduced during around the 9th Century Before Christ (2,900 years ago).

So again; As all know languages are being followed (accompanied) and defined by their alphabets.
The ancient Macedon alphabet (aka GREEK alphabet and most certainly NOT Cyrillic):
Α, Β, Γ, Δ, Ε, Ζ, Η, Θ, Ι, Κ, Λ, Μ, Ν, Ξ, Ο, Π, Ρ, Σ, Τ, Υ, Φ, Χ, Ψ, Ω.


Do your own comparisons;
ancient Macedon text (5th BC) before Koine Greek ;
"...ΘΕΤΙΜΑΣ ΚΑΙ ΔΙΟΝΥΣΟΦΩΝΤΟΣ ΤΟ ΤΕΛΟΣ ΚΑΙ ΤΟΝ ΓΑΜΟΝ ΚΑΤΑΓΡΑΦΩ ΚΑΙ ΤΑΝ ΑΛΛΑΝ ΠΑΣΑΝ ΓΥΝΑΙΚΩΝ ΚΑΙ ΧΗΡΑΝ ΚΑΙ ΠΑΡΘΕΝΩΝ ΜΑΛΙΣΤΑ ΔΕ ΘΕΤΙΜΑΣ ΚΑΙ ΠΑΡΚΑΤΤΙΘΕΜΑΙ ΜΑΚΡΩΝΙ..."


So contrary to what you claim - these people didn't start to be called Macedonians recently. They are called Macedonians already for centuries.

If you've read the above, you'll know this is absoloutely wrong.
Yet read this once more;

Elisabeth Barker
[ The Royal Institute of International Affairs, year 1950, p.10 ]

"...All that can safely be said is that during the last eighty years many MORE seem to have considered themselves Bulgarian, or closely linked to Bulgaria (she reports about the people of the Former Yugoslav Republic region which Josef Tito started calling "Macedonia" the 1950s), than have considered themselves Serbian, or closely linked to Serbia (or Yugoslavia). Only the people of the Skoplje region, in the north west, have ever shown much tendency to regard themselves as Serbs.
There is NO DOUBT that they are southern Slavs; they have a language, or a group of varying dialects, that is grammatically akin to Bulgarian but phonetically in some respects akin to Serbian, and which has certain quite distinctive features of its own (from the proto-Slavic language)..."




Even your "most respected geneticist" Cavalli-Sforza shows, that Greeks are most closely related (genetically) to Yugoslavians (including Macedonians):

http://greek-dna-sub-saharan-myth.org/greek-dna.html

As you know genetics is a recently emerged science, which rapidly evolves. In my previous comment I presented a research conducted by several institutions, which is a very recent one, and has never been in dispute. "The History and Geography of Human Genes" by Cavalli-Sforza etc was written in 1994.

Yet besides that, this http://greek-dna-sub-saharan-myth.org/greek-dna.html
which you provided as a proof that; "...Greeks are most closely related (genetically) to Yugoslavians (including Macedonians)..."
is only a presentetion of many different researches, and it is CLEARLY STATING (I quote);

-Greeks are closest to Italians,
-Vardar Slavs cluster very close to Bulgarians
-Greeks cluster with other North-European and South-European populations (like Italians) and are close to the Basques (Ayub).
-Greeks cluster genetically with 41 other Europeans populations tested. Greeks were quite different genetically from Mexicans, Indians and Pakistanis (subcontinent), and southeast Asians (Auton).


Let me remind you the long dropped ridiculous Arnaiz-Villena research, which was "proving" the Japanese to be IDENTICAL to Africans, Greeks to Africans, Islanders to Congolese. (dropped by this; http://www.readcube.com/articles/10.1038/415115b ).
This research created a serious scandal, forcing the editor of the magazine which published it to appologize to the readers and scientists and to write to his next editorial;
"...ignore the article in question or preferably physically remove the pages...”


A 2011-2012 DNA research (part of a larger research conducted in the wider Mediterranean area) conducted by several institutions such as the Sranford University, the Russian Academy of Sciences (Moscow), the University of Pavia etc., proved 2-3 years ago, that the DNA of the southern Italians is indentical to the Greek one, as result of the colonization of Italy by the Greeks in antiquity.

Therefor the scientists of the institutions that participated this research mentioned above, taking into account the well recorded political, economical, social, cultural, military etc. historical data, and using the results of the DNA research, came to the obvious and only logical conclusion that the nowadays greeks are direct descendants of their ancient ancestors.
This research never been in dispute since published.



And please don't forget this;
A 6-year DNA research conducted by their own "Skopje Forensics Medicine Institute", proved that they relate with the Bulgarians.
http://www.b92.net/eng/news/society....2&nav_id=78407

The results of this research showed that that the residents of the self-declared "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia" are Slavs;
“...The analysis of the data has showed that residents of Macedonia have the most similar DNA with Bulgarians and Serbs, Croats with Bosnian and Serbian population while Kosovo Albanians have the fewest similarities with the others.”

Technically, everyone is of African origins.

Ok... Yet today this has only sentimental value.
Take for example a fish and a horse. Both came from under the seas, and then evolution appeared.
This is what happened among humans.
Everything has changed and will continue changing, since the times when we were all africans.
 
The results of this research showed that that the residents of the self-declared "Република Македонија / Republika Macedonjia" are Slavs;
“...The analysis of the data has showed that residents of Macedonia have the most similar DNA with Bulgarians and Serbs, Croats with Bosnian and Serbian population while Kosovo Albanians have the fewest similarities with the others.”

Clustering closely with Bosnians, Bulgarians, Serbs and Eastern Croats is hardly a proof for being genetically Slavs, because all these southern Slavic groups have relatively little of actual Slavic genetic ancestry, and are mostly the result of assimilation of Ancient Balkan populations by Slavic invaders (just like modern Turks are hardly genetically Turkic, they are mostly descendants of Anatolians conquered and assimilated by Turks).

On the other hand, Slovenes and Western Croats are much more "genetically North Slavic" (or at least less "genetically Ancient Balkan") than the rest of Southern Slavs. In genetic terms, Slovenes and Western Croats cluster more closely with Northern Slavs - especially with Western Slavs - than with Southern Slavs. Despite being geographically and linguistically Southern Slavic, genetically Slovenes and people of western Croatia are more closely related to Slovaks, Poles and Czechs than to Bulgarians, Serbs, Bosniaks, Macedonians or Montenegrins.

Check the links below:

http://www.theapricity.com/forum/showthread.php?134398-Early-Slavic-phenotypes-(6th-10th-centuries)

http://www.theapricity.com/forum/sh...w-much-Slavic-ancestry-do-Italians-have/page4

http://dienekes.blogspot.com/2007/03/origin-of-slavs-in-ukraine.html

(...) The most apparent genetic distance was found between the northern (Eastern and Western) and Southern Slavs, who at the end of the 9th century were separated by the invasion of Finno-Ugric Hungarians [...] The observed northern Slavic Y-STR genetic homogeneity extends from Slovakia and Ukraine to parts of Russia and Belarus, but also involves Southern-Slavic populations of Slovenia and western Croatia, and is the most probably due to a homogeneous genetic substrate inherited from the ancestral Slavic population. However, due to the Y-STR proximity of linguistically and geographically Southern-Slavic Slovenes and western Croats to the northern Slavic branch, the observed genetic differentiation cannot simply be explained by the separation of both Slavic-speaking groups by the non-Slavic Romanians, Hungarians, and Germanspeaking Austrians [...] Thus, the contribution of the Y chromosomes of peoples who settled in the region before the Slavic expansion to the genetic heritage of Southern Slavs is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon. On the other hand, our results indicate no significant genetic traces of pre-sixth-century inhabitants of present-day Slovenia in the Slovene Y chromosome genetic pool. (...)

South Slavs are definitely not North (West + East) Slavs - these are two distinct populations in terms of ancestry.

Two exceptions are Slovenes and Croats, who are genetically more similar to West Slavs than to Balkanians.

Technically, everyone is of African origins.
Ok... Yet today this has only sentimental value.
Take for example a fish and a horse. Both came from under the seas, and then evolution appeared.
This is what happened among humans.
Everything has changed and will continue changing, since the times when we were all africans.

A fish and a horse can't breed and can't produce fertile offspring, whereas a Greek and a Black African can.

-Vardar Slavs cluster very close to Bulgarians

No surprise, since both Vardar Slavs (Macedonians) and Bulgarians are genetically close to Ancient Balkanians.

Ancient Balkanians with some external immigrant admixtures (Slavs, Bulgars, Turks, etc., etc., etc.).
 
Ancient "Balkanians" (whatever that term would yield) would be the Greeks, Illyrians, Dacians and perhaps "Macedonians", as in the state that gave us figures like Philip II and Alexander.
 
Ancient "Balkanians" (whatever that term would yield) would be the Greeks, Illyrians, Dacians and perhaps "Macedonians", as in the state that gave us figures like Philip II and Alexander.

Yes. And also Thracians, the Getae, Roman settlers, Scythians, etc., etc.

Them and / or descendants of even older peoples. For example it seems that in Bosnia there has been a very high degree of population continuity among males since before the arrival of farmers, probably since the end of the Ice Age.

The Basques - on the other hand - contrary to various myths which exist about them, are not "the oldest inhabitants of Europe". They came relatively late - just because their language is not Indo-European doesn't mean that they were there before Indo-Europeans. There are other examples of relatively late Non-Indo-European migrants to Europe as well, for example Hungarians, etc. It seems that people who spoke Basque (which is Vasconic and the only known language of this family) came to Iberia in the 2nd millenium BC or in the 1st millenium BC. So roughly around the same time as Indo-Europeans.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vasconic_languages

The concept of the Vasconic languages is often linked to the Vasconic substratum hypothesis of Theo Vennemann, who speculated that the ancestors of the Basque spread across Europe at the end of the last Ice Age when the Cro-Magnons entered Europe and left traces in the modern languages of Europe. Along with other hypotheses that seek to relate Basque to other languages of the world, this is widely rejected by historical linguists.[2]

Today the hypothesis that something-like-Basque was spoken in Stone Age Iberia, is now being rejected by majority of scholars. It is more likely that the Basques arrived in Iberia much later. Also genetic ancestry of Basque males suggest this (on the other hand, Basque females seem to be to a larger extent of older, more indigenous Iberian stock).
 
The Cyrillic Alphabet was introduced (first found) during the 9th century AD , just 1000 years ago, by two Greek monks, in order to help the SLAVS who until then had no alphabet.

Those monks were brothers and their mother was Slavic, so they were only half-Greek.

Already during the 9th century some Slavic tribes adopted also Latin alphabet:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Freising_manuscripts

The precise date of the origin of the Freising Manuscripts cannot be exactly determined; the original text was probably written in the 9th century. In this liturgic and homiletic manuscript, three Slovene records were found and this miscellany was probably an episcopal manual (pontificals).


Link to video.
 
I don't like to get into this, which is like watching a kaiju fight, but I can't help commenting on this point:

Firsrt of all the link you're providing is from a FYROM historian named Jelena Jaric, Born on 26th of May 1985 in Skopje.
http://ceu.academia.edu/JelenaJaric
You really presenting this to me as a reliable source?
No, this is not accepted.

Are you really saying that any historian, no matter how academically accomplished, who was born in Skopje, is ruled out of court as a source? Isn't that pure prejudice? She's a PhD student at the top university in Macedonia, researching early medieval Byzantine history, which I'd say makes her a prima facie reliable source on this matter. The paper in question was published in the Macedonian Historical Review, which is associated with the same university. If you want to discount either the author or the journal as a reliable source you need to give clear examples of poor scholarship, not disparage them on geographical grounds.
 
I don't like to get into this, which is like watching a kaiju fight, but I can't help commenting on this point:



Are you really saying that any historian, no matter how academically accomplished, who was born in Skopje, is ruled out of court as a source? Isn't that pure prejudice? She's a PhD student at the top university in Macedonia, researching early medieval Byzantine history, which I'd say makes her a prima facie reliable source on this matter. The paper in question was published in the Macedonian Historical Review, which is associated with the same university. If you want to discount either the author or the journal as a reliable source you need to give clear examples of poor scholarship, not disparage them on geographical grounds.

TBH, that university routinely publishes 'dna-studies' categorizing all humans to three groups, two of which are 'negroid' and 'mongolic', and the other (and higher one) is, very surprisingly, 'macedonic' :)

(anyway, in my view this thread is clearly a baiting one, and it would be better to have it locked. It's not like many post here other than the OP and the monologues of his).
 
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