NickyJ
Retired Narrator
Because I wasted too many "little grey cells" on the explanation to remember the punctuation.How is it that you can explain what a gerund is and then misspell the plural? Raarrgghh!
Because I wasted too many "little grey cells" on the explanation to remember the punctuation.How is it that you can explain what a gerund is and then misspell the plural? Raarrgghh!
No, I think "I work less hours" has a different meaning for the word "hours" than the second sentence. Hours refers to the time you work, as in "what are your hours?", which is distinct from hours as 60 minute time segments. Hours of work could conceivably be considered an indiscreet quantity roughly synonymous with "shifts", so the first sentence could be said to be correct, and subtly distinct in meaning from the second. Of course the grammatical distinction here does not imply a practical difference in what's described.I'm not sure that less/fewer can't cause confusion too.
"I work less hours" should mean the hours I work are shorter. (Not that I think you can work shorter hours, but I can't think of a better example, atm.)
"I work fewer hours" means I work for only, say, 5 hours instead of 8.
Not time, an indiscreet quantity synonymous to shift. "What are your hours?" is a way of asking "from when to when do you work?". And work specifically; recreation time would not be called hours. I consider this a common use of the word.But you see it's a gross misuse of the word hours. You seem to be trying to make hours mean time. And in some languages it may well be possible. Though strictly speaking not in modern English, atm.
However, usage is king. And whatever any person's feelings about what is correct, or not, are, language has its own agenda and will go in whatever direction it chooses. It simply can't be controlled, despite it being used by everyone.
Am I gerunding 'gerund' right now?
Present participles aren't gerunds, iirc.
I thing the answer's yes. Gerund is a noun. You added "ing" to make it a verb.So, no?
the gerund is a non-finite verb form used to make a verb phrase that can serve in place of a noun phrase. The English gerund ends in -ing (as in I enjoy playing football); the same verb form also serves as the English present participle (which has an adjectival or adverbial function), and as a pure verbal noun.
Am I gerunding 'gerund' right now?
And we gerund the F-word all the time. There's a pun in there, I'm sure.
"Hilary" was the one that was contradicted by a later question. The Hilary question used "which" to introduce a restrictive clause; indeed, it was the use of "which" to introduce a restrictive, rather than a non-restrictive, clause that gave the reader adequate information to answer the question. Question 7, however, claims that "which" should not be used to introduce a restrictive clause ("that" should be used instead). If the rule in question 7 is followed, then the original question was simply ungrammatical as written: parenthetical commas should be placed around the "which does not" part of the sentence, and thus nothing can be gleaned from it about Hilary's gender. There is, of course, no rule that prevents "which" being used to introduce a restrictive clause: it is merely a convention or style issue. However, if you are going to use that rule -- and claim that it is a rule -- then you should be consistent about it!
I got 10/10 btw (which is why I posted it here )
EDIT: Oh, wait, it's "who" in the Hilary question isn't it, not "which". I guess that means it's technically not contradictory. Okay, I'll let you off, BBC News Website Magazine Grammar Quiz...