Would you say justice, equity, opportunity, prosperity (on mean per capita), and any sort of government participation and rights of any meaningful form are better in the Republic of India, Islamic Republic of Pakistan, and People's Republic of Bangladesh (the post-Raj nations and governments which wouldn't exist without the previous British presence), or the Mughal and Maratha Empires (the main, largest, and most powerful Indian nations upon the beginning of the entrenchment of British power)? Please consider carefully before answering.
Are we talking height of Mughal empire or what was left of it when Britain showed up? India's situation at the time was the reason conquest of the subcontinent was even possible. Though it's interesting you bring up Mughals, because they were foreign invaders also, the remnants of the Iranian Timurid empire. Some of the same patterns you imply with Britain match pretty closely.
Even before Mughals, India often had sultanate minorities ruling massive Hindu majorities, with differing degrees of care.
I don't know a great deal about modern India's real situation since I haven't been there or experienced it. I would imagine standard of living is better now than in the early 1900's. Less so for its smaller neighbors.
Though I'd hesitate to make objective evaluations of "justice", "equity", and "opportunity" because defining these terms has been questionable even within the bounds of the US.
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This discussion aside, the notion that India was always unified is itself asinine. Lots of conquest/"colonizing" there even > 1000 years ago. Good luck drawing a line where "land was originally X people's" there, even if Britain never put ships in the water.
You sound like an apologist for empire, that you believe the subjugated should be grateful to be exploited.
Your question makes the unsaid assumption that an India or Indias that formed out of an uncolonized subcontinent would not have been better. This is of course unprovable by any reasonable standard, but you offer a few railways as compensation for $45 trillion extracted and India falling from perhaps as much as 20% of global trade to 5% over the course of its colonial period.
Historical conquerors are not nice, but it does seem arbitrary to claim Britain significantly worse than comparatively local populations that did the same things.
And let's not play pretend here. India was not "colonized" like USA or most of this hemisphere. Its pattern is more consistent with "conquered". Is that better? Not really, though they did get to skip disease wiping out much of their population so in that sense sure.
Trade% in India was going to fall no matter what. Colonies in western hemisphere got more populated and the world as a whole became less dependent on the silk road. I would argue the improvement of naval craft and the awful opium wars to be large contributors to that also. Much fewer Chinese goods passing through India rather than shipped.
"India for Indians" is a gross oversimplification. That place is massive and the populations there are different from each other. The basic concept of India doesn't happen without SOMEONE pulling a Britain on them, local or otherwise.