GhostWriter16
Deity
I think if you dont appreciate the context of the legal procedure of the day, then your assumption about what it all means may indeed be lacking.
Just wondering, do you think that it was ONLY because of the legal procedure? Or do you agree with me that he was also conveying a spiritual message?
Also, I do agree with the quote above, although I don't necessarily think that the fact that there was a legal procedural issue necessarily means he didn't also have a spiritual point to make. He could have addressed the question in a "Legalistic" way and say "Since you don't have three judges present and the necessary witnesses and whatever, don't kill her." But instead, his choice of words seems to be intended yes to avoid condoning a breech in the Hebrew Law, but to go further and say "He who is without sin cast the first stone." If I recall correctly, anyone who had ever committed the same sin was prohibited from participating in the executions (Although I could be incorrect about that, I seem to recall it being mentioned in a commentary somewhere) but it was not required normally for the person to be totally sinless. Jesus went further (Fulfilling the Law) and said that anyone without sin throws the stone. I don't think there's any good reason to say he was making a point about the death penalty, after all, you can judge someone and give them a life sentence, but he was trying to make a theological point that only because of God's grace is EVERY sin not punishable by death. Its meant to show hypocricy and about how they, even though they were righteous in their own eyes, needed the same Savior just as badly as the adulterous woman did.
Any thoughts on this?
