Then, to return to the original point, how can you describe political secession as being "legitimate" or "illegitimate"? If there is no outside arbiter, there is only the opinion of the contesting parties, and it does not seem immediately apparent that either of them should be privileged with that decision.
And, like with so many other human decisions, people should use their judgment. Because nothing else is left.
Speaking only for myself, I'm not convinced that it's possible to discuss the various institutions such as Big Finance, slavery, the state, and so on, as existing prior to their involvement in society. They are mutually conditioning, so to talk about slavery as being a governmental or non-governmental institution seems to confuse history with legality. But, then, right-libertarians/anarchists aren't very big on the totality (give or take the occasional half-hearted flirtation with Nietzsche), so I can't say how they'd address this.
I can see where in discussions like this the concept of "state" at all is unhelpful. Anarchists and libertarians say "look at the evil perpetrated by the state", and what they really should be looking at is why the people, no matter what aegis they are acting under, acted as they did.
What a lot of these people who are throwing around the label "statist" fail to grasp is that the state is not the goal. It is a means to an end. Not an end in and of itself. With the absolutist and extractive government, the ends are the wealth and power of the elite who run it. And so it frequently happens that there really isn't all that much government in the states where government is the most oppressive. "Communist" states being the biggest exception to that, not because they desire big government as an end, but because they justify their domination of the system through an ideology that they can only pursue by means of a big government. And things tend to take on a momentum of their own after that.
However, you look at the majority of Africa, the majority of Latin America, much of it is every bit as absolutist and extractive, but without all that much government.
And, where there is the least government, there is the most day to day violence.
You have the greatest chances of being a victim of violence at both extremes. And what that means is that you have the least real freedom at both extremes. In a stateless society, whoever has the power to achieve their goals through violence will do so. Nothing is stopping them. Simply making the assumption that people will not resort to violence in the absence of the state ignores the fact that people do so every day. It is in their interest to do so. And the only time they don't is when the state prevents it from happening.
So if you do not want violence, you must have government. There isn't another alternative. Accusing the government and its supporters of wanting to be the only one carrying a big stick to hit others with ignores the fact that that stick isn't going to see nearly as much use as the infinite number of sticks being wielded for an infinite number of reasons.
The state is not the goal. It is a means to an end. And that end is peace, liberty, prosperity.
The nations without (effective) governments are even poorer than those nations with excessive governments. And the only nations who are truly wealthy, free, and prosperous are those where the political institutions are the most inclusive.
I understand that very well, as it happens; I read my labour history.

I'm simply of the opinion that private violence is this sort is invariably dependent on a more far-reaching state violence- not that the distinction between the two is necessarily that clear cut, mind you- which is why capital has, despite the proclamations of the anarcho-"capitalists", always remained firmly behind the state
as such.
And, yes, maybe their control methods are complete balls. I can't say I have any faith in them myself. But the point is that they do exist, however limp and uninspiring as they may be, so if we're to properly engage with the cappie position that needs to be recognised- if only so that it can be refuted.
Capital backs the state because capital receives a lot of services from the state. And in many cases, they'd like to get a lot more. Why work to earn when you can earn without working? Ultimately old money wants to control without having to earn. That happens over and over again. That is why people oppose inheritance taxes.
But to blame the violence of companies against labor on the state isn't really accurate. The government is a tool that capital can try to use against labor, but the violence is of the capital and for the capital. It is not of the state and for the state.
You seem to be getting hung up on violence, when I'm specifically talking about violence to an end. It may well be the case that Amadeus' program is, examined critically, the far more violent of the two; that is certainly my suspicion. But Amadeus's violence is a crime of omission, to return to the distinction you earlier observed, a misplaced faith in the ability of human beings living in a competitive society not to gut each other. Your violence is a crime of commission, a sombre request that the state commit violence against people who transgress against private property. As you yourself observed, there is a difference, so, as was my original point, it seems hypocritical of you to paint him as the stooge of capital when you are the one willing to commit what seems to the self-evidently greater crime on its behalf.
You're reversing yourself a bit here. You and Amadeus are making the mistake of thinking that violence is a state thing, and so you end it by ending the state. Where I am saying that violence is a human thing, and you end it by having enough state to suppress it.
Now in both cases it is an act of omission to allow the violence. But the violence resulting would be an act of commission on the parts of those people who actually, you know, engage in the violence. So I'm willing to commit a minimum amount of violence to prevent others from committing far greater amounts of violence, where Amadeus is willing to just get out of the way and allow unlimited violence. But he would prohibit anyone from acting to protect themselves from violence, and so that is an act of commission on his part. He is not just getting out of the way of the violence, he is actively aiding and abetting it.
So I am aiding and abetting the suppression of violence, even when that requires some use of violence. He is aiding and abetting the unlimited use of violence.
Are "more state" and "less state" very helpful measures of anything much? For example, did Pinochet's Chile have more or less state than Atlee's Britain?
In all honesty, it seems like a confusing rather than enlightening approach to political analysis.
If you want to compare any two states, then you have to really know a lot about those two. Atlee probably had more state, from what little I know of Chile at the time. I know Thatcher had more state than Somalia, and where were you likely to be killed?
An inclusive state can be large without being oppressive. And, in fact, that inclusiveness makes it the least likely to be oppressive. So a big, non-inclusive, state may have as much violence as little to no state has.
It is the inclusiveness that controls the level of violence, not the size of the state. But you should also consider Columbia, which is fairly inclusive, but simply lacks sufficient state to protect the people from private violence.