Greetings Folks,
Today, the monster Milosevic will finally be facing some justice for a decade of crimes against humanity and warfare throughout the Balkans. While it is true as some have pointed out in other threads that the various "nations" of the former Yugoslavia have managed to commit attrocities against one another over the past decades, ensuring that everyone - Serbs included - can feel they've been victimized, none of it would have been possible without Milosevic at the helm in Belgrade. Milosevic ordered the attacks by the JNA against Slovenia and eastern Slavonia in Croatia in 1991, he ordered the liquidation of the Vojvodina autonomy and measures against local ethnic Hungarians, he repeatedly attempted to provoke Hungary into war, he initiated the bloody sieges of Vukovar, Dubrovnik and Osijek that resulted in much loss of life and destruction of historic monuments in them, he initiated the policy of ethnic cleansing in Slavonia that provoked the Croats to reciprocate in kind after their successful 1994 offensive, he initiated the destruction of non-Serbian Orthodox churches, he initiated the assassination of dozens of Serbian political and cultural rivals, he sparked the wars in Bosnia and Herzegovina by arming the local Serbs in Knin and attempting to annex most of these states to Serbia (besieging Sarajevo in brutal fashion in the process), and it was Milosevic who provoked Kosovo Albanian anger with his measures to deprive them of any political rights throughout the 1980s and 90s that sparked the crisis and human rights disaster of 1999. Someone said in these forums that it is impossible to find many angels in the former Yugoslavia, and that indeed is sadly true - but we can identify at least one devil (continuing the analogy) in particular with certainty, one who the most blood on his hands.
That said - I have a question: Have international tribunals in the 20th century been effective? Do they work? Is there really any international legal basis for them? What jurisdiction does the Hague or the UN have? What about the Nuremburg Trials; did they have an impact on the democraticization of Germany by exposing the crimes of the Nazi regime, or were they incidental? What about the Tokyo War Crimes Tribunals? Rwanda? Cambodia? South Africa (though that was a national effort and not an international)?
It of course comes down to how we define "war crimes". Unfortunately, since WW II nearly every belligerent state in every war has labeled their opponents war criminals, but perhaps a more legal and narrowly-defined definition should be used (if we're to bother at all trying). I'll gingerly offer a vague definition that is similar to the one I offered for terrorism, though as I mentioned then it is always a controversal subject and very difficult to find a definition with a broad consensus of agreement: My definition simply says that any military action that specifically targets civilians or any non-military personnel, even in the midst of a full-scale war, is a war crime. The difference between war crimes and terrorism is that the former is committed by regular armed forces of a state under orders of a formal military command, and the latter is committed by "irregulars" or non-military ("paramilitary"?) forces without outside orders. As I said, this is a vague definition with lots of gray area. I got flamed for that in my terrorism thread and I expect the same here....Go ahead, I've got my asbestos underwear on...)
So - what does everyone/anyone think?
Today, the monster Milosevic will finally be facing some justice for a decade of crimes against humanity and warfare throughout the Balkans. While it is true as some have pointed out in other threads that the various "nations" of the former Yugoslavia have managed to commit attrocities against one another over the past decades, ensuring that everyone - Serbs included - can feel they've been victimized, none of it would have been possible without Milosevic at the helm in Belgrade. Milosevic ordered the attacks by the JNA against Slovenia and eastern Slavonia in Croatia in 1991, he ordered the liquidation of the Vojvodina autonomy and measures against local ethnic Hungarians, he repeatedly attempted to provoke Hungary into war, he initiated the bloody sieges of Vukovar, Dubrovnik and Osijek that resulted in much loss of life and destruction of historic monuments in them, he initiated the policy of ethnic cleansing in Slavonia that provoked the Croats to reciprocate in kind after their successful 1994 offensive, he initiated the destruction of non-Serbian Orthodox churches, he initiated the assassination of dozens of Serbian political and cultural rivals, he sparked the wars in Bosnia and Herzegovina by arming the local Serbs in Knin and attempting to annex most of these states to Serbia (besieging Sarajevo in brutal fashion in the process), and it was Milosevic who provoked Kosovo Albanian anger with his measures to deprive them of any political rights throughout the 1980s and 90s that sparked the crisis and human rights disaster of 1999. Someone said in these forums that it is impossible to find many angels in the former Yugoslavia, and that indeed is sadly true - but we can identify at least one devil (continuing the analogy) in particular with certainty, one who the most blood on his hands.
That said - I have a question: Have international tribunals in the 20th century been effective? Do they work? Is there really any international legal basis for them? What jurisdiction does the Hague or the UN have? What about the Nuremburg Trials; did they have an impact on the democraticization of Germany by exposing the crimes of the Nazi regime, or were they incidental? What about the Tokyo War Crimes Tribunals? Rwanda? Cambodia? South Africa (though that was a national effort and not an international)?
It of course comes down to how we define "war crimes". Unfortunately, since WW II nearly every belligerent state in every war has labeled their opponents war criminals, but perhaps a more legal and narrowly-defined definition should be used (if we're to bother at all trying). I'll gingerly offer a vague definition that is similar to the one I offered for terrorism, though as I mentioned then it is always a controversal subject and very difficult to find a definition with a broad consensus of agreement: My definition simply says that any military action that specifically targets civilians or any non-military personnel, even in the midst of a full-scale war, is a war crime. The difference between war crimes and terrorism is that the former is committed by regular armed forces of a state under orders of a formal military command, and the latter is committed by "irregulars" or non-military ("paramilitary"?) forces without outside orders. As I said, this is a vague definition with lots of gray area. I got flamed for that in my terrorism thread and I expect the same here....Go ahead, I've got my asbestos underwear on...)
So - what does everyone/anyone think?