Úmarth;6707176 said:Personally I see the Byzantine Empire as a direct continuation of the Roman Empire and the other claims as no more than attempts to attach the glory of Rome to new empires.
It really depends on what definition you use, and I used the basest, most literal one.Your definition does not hold up. If it's a matter of ethnicity then either the "fall" of the Roman empire was much earlier than the fifth century - the first Emperor not born in Italy was Trajan (he was Iberian) and there were many after that, by the time of Romulus Augustus Rome wasn't even the centre of government - or you accept that the territories Rome conquered, in Italy and beyond, were Romanised and formed part of an updated Roman culture/ethnicity. One of those Romanised groups were of course the Greeks.What defines empire? Imperium means "territory." The Imperium Romanum was literally "territory of the Romans." Since the Romans ceased to exist as a defined cultural and ethnic group since it's fall--displaced by either Greek or "barbarian"--there was no longer such a thing as an Imperium Romanum because there was no longer such a thing as "Romans."
Yeah sorry I realised I should have put "none of the above" after I posted but you can't edit polls. Anyway, I'm curious as to why you think the Western Roman Empire had primacy over the east, because it's capital was Rome itself? At what point do you judge the Eastern Emperors as stopping to be Roman?Well yes, your views are pretty evident since you omitted the real answer to the question and sided Byzantium with other fabulous options.
The real answer is clearly none, the last Roman Emperor is Romulus Augustus, and the bloodline was seriously undermined in both Republican and Imperial Rome. Talks of bloodline and succession don't apply much with Rome.
Byzantine was used because (1) the Empire's culture was different from Roman culture but (2) they still used "Roman Empire" as their official name. Of course, describing something as the "Roman Empire" when it was clearly un-Roman would be confusing, so they made up some name based on its capital. "Byzantine" because "Byzantion" or "Byzantium" was the old Greek name for Constantinople's site.
When Rome fell, it's culture lingered on but eventually the realities of life set in and those barbarians and Greeks simply realized that they can't hold up the farce of using Latin and wearing togas all the time. Breeches came in, and they liked it. Greek was used, and they liked it. And they eventually accepted that it simply wasn't Roman.The Turkish leaders will never see them selfes as Romans. The titles Sultan has nothing to do with any Roman titles, as fas as I know. Emperor (French : Empereur) is derived from latin Imperator, German: Kaiser and Dutch: keizer (Ducth and German are modern versions of the Frankian language, the language of Charlemagne) and the Ruaasian :Tzar are derived from the name Caesar, the first Roman Emperor (Gaius Octavianus Caesar AKA Augustus). And the Titles of the Bysantine Emperors was the greek versian of Imperator. Also, in the late Roman empire, the titles was mixed up with Christanity, and Muslim leader would not clain a christian title.
The real answer is clearly none, the last Roman Emperor is Romulus Augustus, and the bloodline was seriously undermined in both Republican and Imperial Rome. Talks of bloodline and succession don't apply much with Rome.
Well yes that was that was why I included it, they ruled Rome for pretty much all of the time from the fall of the WRE to unification. Also even now the Popes are Pontifex Maximus... an office with an unbroken line of succession going to Augustus and beyond.The popes best claim would be for their time ruling Rome.