On "feudalism"

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I suppose that I should call this some sort of informal mini-article. Since this subject comes up somewhat frequently, I thought a short thread that talks about a revolution in medieval historiography that killed "feudalism" as a blanket term would be lovely.

Still to this day you're likely to learn about how the Middle Ages were a feudal society: with the collapse of the old levying system after the Goths, Franks, Lombards and Anglo-Saxons swept through and dismantled the old Roman institutions, military organization now revolved around oligarchical tributaries. The great conquering kings like Clovis and William of Normandy would grant their conquests to their nobles and the Church as a reward for their loyalty, in order for them to administrate the lands (fiefs) in the name of the king (vassalage) after a ritual homage, called a commendation ceremony. In order to work the land, the nobles then would then do the same for peasants, who became serfs that were legally obliged to stay on the manor of their lord.

The whole narrative of the above was really written by François-Louis Ganshof, a Belgian early-20th century historian who thought that this was a uniform social-economic relationship that lasted all the way from the barbarian invasions until the Protestant Reformation. Ganshof's description of feudalism was really detailed, all of that was based on a 13th Lombardy legal treatise, Libri Feudorum, which was a collection of statements regarding the legal details of vassalage. So this is pretty good, right? We have a fat codex that tells us all of the minutiae of how this worked.

Well, it turns out that describing a gigantic geographic entity over the course of a 1,000 years using a single legal document doesn't actually fly. This is something medieval historians before and after Ganshof realized. In many places, Libri Feudorum-vassalage was totally irreconcilable with the given evidence for what the actual relationship between peasants and nobles was like. So each historian tried to cram what they saw into the Ganshof terminology, while redefining feudalism in their work. For example, in works about the 15th century Wars of the Roses, authors will examine "English bastard feudalism", a very complex system that depends on the regional influence of individual barons (nothing like 13th century Lombardy's structure); but you'll also read about how David I introduced feudalism during his reign in 12th century Scotland based on the employ contracts of French knights (also nothing like 13th century Lombardy's structure).

Since every historian tried to talk about "feudalism" in ways that were nothing like each other, especially not like 13th century Lombardy as Ganshof described, the word "feudalism" became a Frankensteinian monster that really meant nothing except how each individual author wanted it to mean for the time period they were discussing. This was pointed out in Elizabeth A. R. Brown's paper The Tyranny of a Construct in 1974, basically a paper which asks "why the heck are we trying to cram intensely different things into one word?" Then in 1994, Susan Reynolds published Fiefs and Vassals: The Medieval Evidence Reinterpreted, an extremely detailed and scathingly critical book that deconstructs both vassalage and fiefdom. Very quickly in the book, she writes that "vassalage... is a term that no longer matches either the evidence we have available or the conceptual tools we need to use in analyzing it. It is both too diffuse and too narrow -- not surprisingly, since it survives from a primitive stage of the study of social relations... Vassalage is too vacuous a concept to be useful" (p. 47). The rest of the book then talks about fiefdom and why the Ganshof narrative gives us really bad parameters in terms of terminology.

This is an exerpt from Fred Cheyette's review of Reynold's work:

Those who read medieval documents through the lenses of the conventional construction of "feudalism" make two fundamental assumptions: first that the documents, especially charters, are legal documents, drawing their meaning from a preexisting body of law, be it Roman (Theodosian, Visigothic, Justinianic), ecclesiastical, or customary; second -- a corollary of the first -- that particular words in those documents have technical meanings which they retain over long periods of time, meanings given to them by that body of law. For "feudalism" (and thus for Reynolds's argument) the critical words are nouns that refer to property, such as proprietas, alod, feudum, casamentum, beneficium, honor, and verbs, such as tenere, associated with them, as well as expressions such as auxilium et consilium, cavalcatum, and others that express obligations. The very structure of Ganshof's little book depends on these assumptions; Annales social history in the wake of Georges Duby's Mâconnais (at which Reynolds levels a stringent critique, pp. 166-67) would not exist without them; they have their most vocal contemporary defenders in such French historians as Elisabeth Magnou-Nortier, Jean-Pierre Poly, and Eric Bournazel. This suggests the stakes on the table.

To these assumptions Reynolds responds with a radical nominalism. Sometimes it takes an extreme form: "Abstract nouns like feo, fevum, feudum. . . cannot be assumed to have has consistent meanings outside their contexts. Even if one context suggests some content for a word, that content cannot be assumed to be inherent in the word itself in such a way as to be transferred to other contexts and other cases. Contexts, unfortunately, are often unhelpful in this period [900-1100]. . . . Scribes may have used apparently classificatory nouns to describe pieces of property without being concerned to distinguish anything we might call different and definable categories of property" (pp. 119-20). Taken at face value, this turns eleventh-century scribes into the Humpty Dumpty of Alice through the Looking Glass, "When I use a word. . . it means just what I choose it to mean -- neither more nor less." Other occasions, happily, prove that this is just a (not uncommon) example of Reynolds's loose talk. What she really means most of the time is what she asserts later in the same paragraph: "Even if [the scribes] were interested in distinctions, the words used in records. . . could not have had the technical senses they might acquire in later ages of professional law." Sometimes, as in this particular argument, Reynolds asserts that meanings may have varied from monastery to monastery; at other moments the argument seems to be that they varied from region to region and even in the same community or region may have varied significantly over time.

Source

In other words, what Ganshof takes for granted is the fact that each community, and even individual person, looked at "property" and "fealty" in different ways. One such example of this is by looking at the Domesday Book compiled by William of Normandy in 1086 after conquering England: we can see that many Anglo-Saxon peasants were "cheated" by the Norman aristocrats who devalued the tributes that were given to the previous sheriffs under the Godwin kings, despite the fact that William had an earnest desire to maintain the old privileges of the crown he had just won. This was such a problem under the Ganshof narrative that the historians of ancient England merely wrote off William as an oppressive king, a ridiculously simplified view that utterly failed to consider the ramifications of why a different people across the channel would record economic data the way they did. Modern historians are now really seeing how amazingly resourceful and complicated the Domesday Book is for telling us about the top-to-down economic structure in Norman England.

Reynold's work, of course, is not the end-all-and-be-all of the subject. She actually utilizes such a huge amount of primary evidence that historians, to this day, are wading through it to see if her analyses of certain periods are accurate. A recent criticism of her, as well, is that since her criticism is aimed at debunking the old Ganshof narrative (and some modulations to it made by a handful of historians after him), that while not inaccurate, it's a work that is dialectic in nature; she looks entirely at the social-economic relationship between "peasants" and "aristocrats" (also not rigidly-defined roles that can be uniformly used), not truly in the fullest context that "fiefs" had in medieval society. Since I'm no expert on medieval history myself, I cannot even begin to talk about all of the post-Reynolds studies in feudalism.

So where does that leave us? Well, for one, "feudalism" is dead and you have to look at archaeological and textual histories to see how each individual microcosmic region in Europe worked in its given time period. Secondly, confining the "Middle Ages" to the "feudal period" is annoyingly preposterous, as well as Marxist and other anthropological narratives that try to build a linear progression of human beings based on economic progress.
 
Thank you for posting this. I think Elizabeth A. R. Brown and Susan Reynolds should have destroyed feudalism. But, while feudalism may be dead, it still lives on in zombie form. Most textbooks still reflect the old theories.

I think part of it is it makes the Middle Ages simple. It also makes it different. Only the Middle Ages has the feudal system. But, yeah, it's stupid.

For those who want a good overview of better information: this is written towards a general audience.
 
You don't get that as often in Medievel Irish Studies, but it does sneak in the back door quite a bit. I've seen plenty of books create one little box labeled "Tannistry" (it's own problem), and stick the English in another box labeled "Feudalism" and talk about how Tannistry was different from Feudalism. Really unacceptable stuff.
 
Subbed to be read after my Medieval exams, in which I will have to use those outdated theories ;)
 
You don't get that as often in Medievel Irish Studies, but it does sneak in the back door quite a bit. I've seen plenty of books create one little box labeled "Tannistry" (it's own problem), and stick the English in another box labeled "Feudalism" and talk about how Tannistry was different from Feudalism. Really unacceptable stuff.

I hate when this happens. And Southeast Asian studies being what it is, has this happening a lot.
 
You don't get that as often in Medievel Irish Studies, but it does sneak in the back door quite a bit. I've seen plenty of books create one little box labeled "Tannistry" (it's own problem), and stick the English in another box labeled "Feudalism" and talk about how Tannistry was different from Feudalism. Really unacceptable stuff.

Perfect demonstration of what Brown was talking about: everyone has the Ganshof narrative for what feudalism is, but individual authors always redefined it for their specific time periods without realizing how pointless using the word is.
 
Perfect demonstration of what Brown was talking about: everyone has the Ganshof narrative for what feudalism is, but individual authors always redefined it for their specific time periods without realizing how pointless using the word is.

Yeah, Elizabeth A.R. Brown brings up a similar example where an author concludes that feudalism never reached England. He basically looks at Anglo-Saxon society pre-conquest to post-conquest and determines that the things that fit the stereotype of feudalism either existed before or never existed at all. There were so many problems with this logic, but it exemplified the problem that, when you looked at an individual area, it didn't appear feudal. Even the heart of feudalism (the Franco-German border) didn't really fit the model.
 
There's something I've been wanting to ask about this pet peeve about feudalism so many young historians (?) seem to have: if indeed the word "feudalism" became a Frankensteinian monster that really meant nothing except how each individual author wanted it to mean for the time period they were discussing (which seems to the the usual complaint), what is wrong with it?

Are those authors not recognizing that "feudalism" does not correspond to the early simplified narrative made by that belgian guy? If "feudalism" is being used as a placeholder for "political regime of the middle ages in this particular region" and it is recognized that such regime had peculiar characteristics, why complain so much? Only because the same word is used for different things? Might as well complain about the word "medieval"!

Perhaps I missed some abuse of the word "feudalism" here in my southern european lands, because where I see that word used it is not with any intent of meaning a uniform regime across medieval Europe.
 
There's something I've been wanting to ask about this pet peeve about feudalism so many young historians (?) seem to have: if indeed the word "feudalism" became a Frankensteinian monster that really meant nothing except how each individual author wanted it to mean for the time period they were discussing (which seems to the the usual complaint), what is wrong with it?

Are those authors not recognizing that "feudalism" does not correspond to the early simplified narrative made by that belgian guy? If "feudalism" is being used as a placeholder for "political regime of the middle ages in this particular region" and it is recognized that such regime had peculiar characteristics, why complain so much?
Because then it's a useless term! If I started to write modern history, and labelled everything "socialist" and admitted that I was using the term to mean whatever I liked in that particular context, you'd agree that was insane and unhelpful.

That also makes certain statements and arguments completely nonsensical. Take my example that crops up. Translated into this, "Ireland never developed a feudal system" means "Ireland never developed the political regime of the middle ages in Ireland."

Or "Hugh O'Neil's power was a result of Irish politics becoming increasingly feudal" means "Hugh O'Neil's power was a result of Irish politics becoming increasingly like the political regime of the middle ages in Ireland (as opposed to the political structures of Ireland in the middle ages).

This is especially frustrating because high school textbooks STILL teach Ganshof style feudalism as an actual thing, and so every year (good) professors have to spend a semester or so braining into their students that it wasn't, while still using the terminology of Ganshof to mean different and inconsistent things.

Only because the same word is used for different things? Might as well complain about the word "medieval"!
I do!
 
Hmm, ok, I see what you mean. And now that I think of it, yes, high school textbooks do "teach" that simplified version of feudalism still. It's so far behind I'd forgotten it, but I checked it and some of those ideas about feudalism as a hierarchical construct all the way to the kind with oaths and such keep showing up.

Sat though it may be, now that (again) I though about it I can't expect much better from high school textbooks. How much time do they devote to the medieval (sorry :)) era anyway?
 
You don't really have to apologize for medieval. The big difference is medieval doesn't have the loads of intellectual baggage that comes with feudalism. Medieval just brings about weirdness like the medieval period post dating the colonization of America in some places.

If you want to take a look at the ideological baggage feudalism holds in english, someone in OT just told me that feudalism in Japan ended in the year of our Lord, nineteen hundred and forty five.

As for time devoted to the middle ages, I got quite a bit. It's right in the middle of global history which is riiiiiight when things start to drag in the semester and suddenly you take forever on it until you have to catch up real quick because the grade is ending.

U.S. history has the same thing on "causes of the civil war."
 
Are those authors not recognizing that "feudalism" does not correspond to the early simplified narrative made by that belgian guy? If "feudalism" is being used as a placeholder for "political regime of the middle ages in this particular region" and it is recognized that such regime had peculiar characteristics, why complain so much? Only because the same word is used for different things? Might as well complain about the word "medieval"!

The problem is there was no generally applicable regime. Nor really any regime applicable to a particular society as a whole. There was no system.
 
You don't really have to apologize for medieval. The big difference is medieval doesn't have the loads of intellectual baggage that comes with feudalism. Medieval just brings about weirdness like the medieval period post dating the colonization of America in some places.
According to the official Soviet classification, the English Revolution (which resulted in Charles I being executed, not the 'Glorious' one) marks the beginning of post-medieval era. It's still in place in many Russian universities, 'cause everyone's too lazy to change it.
 
That's not too far off from the Irish Studies Department classification which says it ended in 1607, with the Flight of the Earls.
 
I was under the assumption that the Middle Ages had ended right about the time of Charles the Bold's death at Nancy.
 
The Middle Ages clearly ended in 1081 with the ascension of Alexios Komnenos to the purple.
 
According to the official Soviet classification, the English Revolution (which resulted in Charles I being executed, not the 'Glorious' one) marks the beginning of post-medieval era. It's still in place in many Russian universities, 'cause everyone's too lazy to change it.

Sounds like a pretty decent classification to me. The English stopped being medieval when they decided they didn't want a "divinely appointed" monarch, until a decade later they regrettably changed their minds and went back to being medieval, a situation which persists today.
 
I was under the assumption that the Middle Ages had ended right about the time of Charles the Bold's death at Nancy.

Classifying time periods to an exact date (or even an exact year) is not only 100% arbitrary, it's also entirely pointless; it doesn't do anything for anybody, except maybe academic faculty that divide the different historical departments thematically. It irks me a bit.

Sounds like a pretty decent classification to me. The English stopped being medieval when they decided they didn't want a "divinely appointed" monarch, until a decade later they regrettably changed their minds and went back to being medieval, a situation which persists today.

It seems like 80% of your political posts are about your attitude towards hereditary monarchy (the other 20% seem to be about ethnicity/nationality). I'm curious, do you actually have significant negative sentiment towards constitutional monarchies (something that most people don't care about because it's entirely ceremonial), or is it just an easy platform for snarks?
 
Don't mind me. One of my more autistic traits is liking clear definitions on things, even if they're arbitrary or nonsensical. :)
 
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