If I'm the Neville Chamberlain, then could you be the Lord Halifax of the story? Let's find out. If you can't restrain yourself, here goes, try and argue with someone you can't just denounce as an Isreali for a change. France was an Axis client, and therefore IS a former Axis client. Unlike say, in the Netherlands, the LEGAL French government, in 1940, chose to: - surrender completely to Germany, rather than simply surrendering to German forces but continuing to resist in exile as every single other invaded country chose to do - negotiate terms with Germany - implement policies to assist Germany in prosecuting the war - order its troops to engage in combat against Allied forces - break a treaty signed just weeks before with Britain that guaranteed that the French fleet would not be placed in jeapordy of falling into German hands. Why? Because the French wanted to use the ships to cut a better deal with Hitler - institute a quasi-fascist regime which continued to operate from Germany soil even after the liberation of France oh, and... - with the documented support of large parts of the population, sent Jews to German camps, and often did so without the Germans even asking for such assistance. So, let me ask this: if antisemitism appeared to be on the rise in Germany, it would be a legitimate cause for concern, given its history, correct? Given that it organized and successfully implemented the Holocaust, with the help of some - not all, but certainly some - of its ordinary citizens? If so, then why not, say, show similar concern if the same thing began in France, given that it, too, aided and abetted Germany actively in prosecuting the Holocaust? Please explain - without trolling me about my purported "anti-french opinions, since I am merely citing historical facts - what is wrong with this logic?