Well, to make my point.
A mostly agree with you, Blaarg, but I feel that the term Universal is inappropriate, as it would imply 100% of the populace should vote. I think Widespread should be used, so it would be better understood.
That way, the state can call itself practicing Widespread Suffrage and still decide with clear conscience that people it deemed unfit for voting (children, criminals, etc...) can be excluded without compromising its claim that it practices WS?
WS could then be taken relatively in time.
In the 200B.C.s, Athens' suffrage is considered WS by the standards of the age, even if limited to Athenians.
In the 200s B.C., Rome joined Athens with WS the adoption of Lex Hortensia in 287 B.C. when people who does not have the blood of the original inhabitants of the city could vote.
In the principate, WS disappeared in Rome, and only reemerged in the 1500s.
By the middle of that century, the English is considered to have the most WS of all the states considering its Parliamentary system.
Etc. etc, until the concept of WS would be expanded with time.
Perhaps, if in the future, children and mentally retarted people and foreigners are allowed to vote, then the democratic governments of today might be considered by those who live in the future to have narrow suffrage, don't you think?
Then