Indeed, for writing - toilet paper and wrapping undoubtedly had a far-reaching impact, but nothing compared to the use of paper for written records.
China wrote volumes upon volumes of texts and reproduced at industrial scales for hundreds of years. If you're saying that the Chinese writing system interfered with the proliferation of literacy in China, you're right, but it's aside from the point. If we want to debate the merits and disadvantages of the system separately that's fine - keep in mind that Chinese characters gave most people in China a means of communicating with people who spoke different languages, which was beneficial to national/cultural unity - as well as cultural identity, as anyone trained in Classical Chinese (as most scholars were throughout Chinese history) had no problem reading something written about 700 years ago, 1,000 miles away.
A rifle is not just an improved arquebus, a howitzer isn't just a cannon facing upwards; moveable type is not functionally the same as Chinese printing, only better. The changes Europeans made were fundamental to both realising the potential of the technologies and disseminating them globally in a way that made them significant. If printing had never left China, or never been combined with an alphabet amenable to the use of moveable type, we wouldn't now be considering it a major invention, just as a way of representing a currency.
One, you're arguing backwards. Presumably you're asserting that some kind of "ends" needs to be served by the discovery in order for it to be "great". That's akin to saying we don't know now who should get credit for the computer or airplane because 1 billion years down the line, when the technology is taken to its most developed extent, some non-existent civ will be responsible. That's patently ridiculous.
Two, the inventions themselves are far more revolutionary given the economic conditions they spawned in. Again, Arabs, Turks, Persians, Mongols and what have you proved themselves perfectly capable of transmitting technology. No culture proved to be as inventive as China from the neolithic up until the 1500's, and even after that China was still an economic powerhouse for 250-300 years.
Unknowable, but almost certainly not - very few other empires ever matched Rome's combination of both territorial extent and longevity, and in part this was due to cultural factors including a governance system that allowed the empire to maintain its integrity following multiple civil wars, and the central importance given to Rome itself - derived from its history as a city-state. Most empires with Rome's extent never had its lasting impact on the societies that emerged following them, as few were as centralised or had anything equivalent to the Roman senate system that allowed senators to be raised from outlying regions, brought to Rome and inculcated in the culture.
I'd attribute this equally to being at the right place and the right time, and simply not facing powerful enemies or enemies who were poorly situated. Crap "starts", if you will.
There's just no definite evidence, and since lodestones were widely used globally for their magnetic properties and Europe did develop navigation systems that made them capable of crossing oceans (if inadvertently) before the Chinese were using compasses in navigation, an independent origin can't be ruled out. There's no apparent direct lineage as there is for gunpowder or printing.
The compass and star charts are completely unrelated technologies; as for lodestone use, that's probably something that can easily be examined in records but it seems highly unlikely given the level of intercourse between the Mid-East and Europe that the Europeans would suddenly independently invent it 50 years after they were in widespread use in the near-abroad.
Which is part of the reason Denmark isn't in the poll, but that's irrelevant to the point at hand - which is that the Europeans were capable of equivalent levels of technological development at about the same period. The idea of medieval Europe as a Dark Ages backwater is more revisionism fed by post-colonial guilt than reality, combined with a myth of Eastern wisdom that has itself persisted in the continent since medieval times
That's supposing post-colonial guilt is genuinely a force anywhere in the West. It is not. Admiration for "the East" died out quite a long time ago, and has been rotting for the last 200 years.
You're missing the point of the analogy - which is that the originator (whether singular or multiple) is not the source you ultimately look to for its impact.
I'm not convinced. The originator is absolutely critical if origin is strictly proprietary. I see absolutely no evidence that other cultures were, for example, anywhere close to discovering gunpowder. Invention is part accident but it's highly involved with economic and social conditions.
Had the Mongols not exported gunpowder, it would not have been a world-changing invention: they themselves beat the Chinese when the Chinese had gunpowder weapons and the Mongols didn't.
They actually didn't, they beat the Jin who were Jurchens and North Chinese with the help of the Tanguts who were Sinicized Qiang and each of these forces combined then whittled down the Southern Song. By the time China was fully conquered their conquerors weren't strictly Mongols anymore. They certainly cut a swathe to the West without much help from gunpowder, however.
Chinese formulas appear not to have improved substantially over time - it was Europeans who refined the process. It was Europeans who mounted cannon on ships. It was even Europeans rather than the adjacent Chinese who introduced firearms to Japan.
All sorts of formulae for explosive and incendiary powders are noted in the Huolongjing, with a number of them very close to modern, standardized black powders. Mounting cannons on ships is rather intuitive and not quite a stroke of genius, and I have my doubts about this specific claim. And I also doubt the Japanese claim, but it should be noted that the Japanese far excelled Europeans in gunsmithing within decades of the introduction of Dutch and Portuguese arquebuses. So at that point in time, were they to be credited with the impact of gunpowder?
Besides which, how can you claim that the infrastructure needed to disseminate Roman ideas isn't a Roman achievement? As above, no other ancient empire was as successful at exporting its ideas - China included.
I say it is one of Rome's striking advantages. Yet, once more, Persians, Arabs and Mongols have proven equally capable of spreading technology. China is perfectly good at exporting its ideas, it's just not good at exporting huge parts of its culturally assimilated territories as new, breakaway nations with limited cultural ties to the progenitor, e.g. Francia, Hispania, Graecia, etc. If Guangdong, Fujian and others fell partially from the Chinese orbit we could likewise say Chinese culture was "exported" to them, as well. Similarly, the slow adoption of Chinese cultural norms by nomads seems to be a form of export if you count human geopgraphy.
Haven't we already established that we aren't going by invention alone? Without the Roman system of governance, Rome wouldn't have survived or transmitted its ideas. Nor are the Chinese by any means the only people with a solid work ethic, either now or historically.
Yet without Rome, some other established power would probably have filled in for them as the West Eurasian historical record shows. If not Rome then Greece, if not Greece then Persia or Arabia, and failing either of them perhaps India. It's a given that fully 2/3rds to 3/4ths of the human population will produce at least one extensive empire somewhere between the Mediterranean and North India, and provided that it's likely that one will come to dominate its neighbors.
Once again, impact is judged by what they do, not who has the most or the fastest (and arguably both technologies are too recent to have had a substantial effect on the world's development). Russia has more atomic bombs than the US, and more advanced ones than the US had in the 1940s - that doesn't mean that Russian nuclear weapons have had more global impact than two primitive American bombs in 1946.
To what end? And yes, they had a great impact as they completely changed the strategic assumptions of the Cold War.
Again, you're missing the point. It's where the goods were traded from, not where they came from, that's the point. Most of the spices the Europeans came to obtain from India came from Indonesia; that does not mean Indonesia had the bigger impact on the world. The Age of Discovery did not begin because anyone was looking for Ambon. Nor did it begin because anyone was looking for China (as I noted earlier in the thread, Native Americans don't derive their colloquial name from the Chinese, but from the Indians - those were the people Colombus was after).
Yet almost all Spanish silver ended up in Chinese coffers, and Europeans scrambled all around Southeast Asia trying to establish trade links with China. It seems like the "Indian" naming is more an artifact of ignorance, and the historical record shows that the China trade was a significant economic prize that at least sustained the enterprises of maritime European states if it didn't inspire them.
As for tea, why is it now the world's most popular drink after water? Not because of the Chinese.
If not for the Chinese, chances are there would be no culture of tea drinking. And yes, before the British arrived Chinese tea culture had long spread through East, Central, South and Southeast Asia - so if your sole determiner of who "really matters" is how they impacted the West today, then I won't argue with you there.
And only to a limited extent because it originated in China. As a programme I listened to recently pointed out, the global impact of tea stemmed from it being the first truly globally-produced and disseminated commodity - the British took the leaf from China and added sugar - originally from New Guinea - cultivated in the West Indes by slaves ultimately from West Africa. So China's impact there is on a par with New Guinea's, Jamaica's, and Ghana's.
For one, Indians and Chinese don't take their tea with sugar. You might be confusing the popularization of tea in England with that in the world at large. The use of cane is rather straight-forward and intuitive, tea culture is not, just as sericulture was not - another thing other cultures never discovered despite having plenty of access to the raw materials.
Yes, China can be seen as an entity much like Europe - not one much like any individual European state. Europe has a "single species of script" (though it has variants, such as Cyrillic, it and the surrounding areas of the Mediterranean are the only part of the world where the alphabet is native, and almost all European scripts use variants of the Latinized version), ethnic homogeneity, and a sense of Europe as a coherent entity despite its existence as multiple states throughout most of this period. As such, comparing China with any given European state is misleading, and treating modern Chinese history as the history of 'all China' is akin to adding the European Union as a civilisation to this poll.
I'd say there are levels of continuity, and China simply has the greatest historical sense of itself, bound together by a script, state philosophy, strategic culture and system of government that drove its "unification" impulse. No such continuity exists anywhere else, but for the sake of simplicity even if I limited what I was saying to only the Han and on most of my points would still stand.
Genetics has next to nothing to do with ethnicity. Genetically, the French are Germanic and most English people are from indigenous groups that we would today call Celtic, despite a Germanic culture and a language derived mostly from a fusion of early forms of German and French. Ethnicity is a construct, and one that changes over time. The idea of a 'core Chinese ethnicity' is a modern adoption - given the name Han because that's the period the Chinese look to as their golden age, not out of any direct descent - presenting a false image of cultural uniformity.
And if people believe 'en masse' this "false image of cultural uniformity" ..? By your own standards that's "ethnicity", and this ethnicity has long and developed sense of itself. There is no real sense of European-ness. It only manifests itself when Europeans try to one-up other civilizations, but falters as soon as Greece wants to borrow some money from Germany to get out of a crisis, or when one of their neighbors is being partitioned by a certain debatably-Western great power.
What point is this trying to make? Not only was the impact of the Industrial Revolution concentrated in the 19th and early 20th Century, the impact of modern consumer goods - as with the impact of any development - rests on the way those are used, not their place of origin.
This is a really novel theory of economics, where supply "doesn't matter". Yes, creation/existence is pretty essential. Without China the world would be that much poorer, period.
Would you say French cinema has had more impact than Hollywood, because the French invented it? Or perhaps Indian cinema has more impact than Hollywood, because the Indian film industry is larger than America's? Your analogies consistently don't work.
Is the existence of French Cinema a condition for the existence of Hollywood? Then yes, it is. Likewise we understand that if one's mother is killed before he is born, he can't exist. He doesn't suddenly stop owing his existence to her when he's 40, or 60, or 80 and on - those considerations matter after the fact. As for the Indian cinema one, that's debatable - but it's completely unrelated to my analogy.
Modern China has created the fastest economic growth in the history of mankind, and their economy truly enriches the world far more than any other does - unlike sketchy "services" offered by some developed nations which contribute nothing to global stability and economic development. I don't understand why this is in any way difficult to understand.