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Who should own the means of violence?

Discussion in 'Off-Topic' started by Hygro, May 15, 2018.

  1. Hygro

    Hygro soundcloud.com/hygro/

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    In the USA the means of violence are shared/divided among Congress (raise armies and navies), The President (CiC), and, The States (Militia), and The People (2nd Amendment).

    How do you feel the means of violence should be distributed?
     
  2. hobbsyoyo

    hobbsyoyo https://thespacecadetblog.com/

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    No one should have weapons.
    A man can dream can't he?
     
  3. Timsup2nothin

    Timsup2nothin Another drone in the hive mind

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    The means of violence don't matter as much as the inclination. Until we get that better rounded up we're pretty much screwed.
     
  4. Kyriakos

    Kyriakos Alien spiral maker

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    A well-regulated militia, the right of the people to bear arms SHALL NOT BE INFRINGED.
     
  5. Sommerswerd

    Sommerswerd I never yielded

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    That's a pretty impressive butchering of the text.
     
  6. Kyriakos

    Kyriakos Alien spiral maker

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    What part of missing the point don't you understand? :D
     
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  7. Zkribbler

    Zkribbler Warlord

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    It's closer to the text than the interpretation by Scalia.
     
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  8. Broken_Erika

    Broken_Erika Nothing

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    Squirrels should be the sole owner of the means of violence. You will agree or taste their squirrely wrath!
     
    Manfred Belheim likes this.
  9. Zelig

    Zelig Beep Boop

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    Which branches of the state have the means doesn't particularly matter.

    Non-state actors don't need means of violence, since they can't legitimately use it.
     
  10. Akka

    Akka Moody old mage.

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    You can certainly use self-defense legitimately.
     
  11. Zelig

    Zelig Beep Boop

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    For the pedantic: "they can't legitimately use it without state approval".
     
  12. Farm Boy

    Farm Boy I swear..

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    That's an ask for forgiveness rather than permission sort of thing. Which means the approval is secondary in the equation as what it does is forbear another round of violence.
     
  13. Berzerker

    Berzerker Warlord

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    The people come first... It is their inherent right of self defense that creates 'the consent of the governed' for the state to use violence on their behalf.

    Depends on how you define legitimate. Was it legitimate for Nazis to kill Germans en masse? Or was it legitimate for their victims to resist the slaughter? I'd go with the latter... Moral legitimacy > legal legitimacy.
     
    Last edited: May 16, 2018
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  14. Zelig

    Zelig Beep Boop

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    Legally, until you can claim the state is illegitimate.
     
  15. Sommerswerd

    Sommerswerd I never yielded

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    What part of "impressive" don't you understand? ;)
     
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  16. Timsup2nothin

    Timsup2nothin Another drone in the hive mind

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    If there is genuine rule of law you can't actually ask for either forgiveness or permission. There is a (probably intentional) misrepresentation that courts and judges and juries are supposed to be deciding things like "was this killing okay because self defense." The truth is that they are only there to decide "was this a violation of the law as written?" It isn't up to them to say "it's okay that you broke the law because <reasons>."
     
  17. BvBPL

    BvBPL Pour Decision Maker

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    In terms of who should have the capacity to perform violence, the answer is no one.

    As to who should shoulder the responsibility for violence, it is the burden everyone at large to both answer for and advocate against violence conducted within society.
     
  18. inthesomeday

    inthesomeday Immortan

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    Ideally nobody but at the moment the rich. To get to “nobody” the poor gotta take ‘em.
     
  19. Synsensa

    Synsensa Warlord Retired Moderator

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    Being poor does not make you morally superior or ultimately pacifistic.
     
  20. inthesomeday

    inthesomeday Immortan

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    Disagree

    Agree.

    If the goal is nonviolence, however, decentralizing the means of violence is an absolutely necessary step.
     

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