Word "slave" in English should be uprooted.

Should word "slave" be uprooted?

  • Yes, we should do it

    Votes: 1 2.8%

  • In theory yes, but I doubt it's possible

    Votes: 2 5.6%

  • No, because it's not really possible

    Votes: 2 5.6%

  • No, because the link with Slavs is historical only

    Votes: 18 50.0%

  • No, because Slavs are really a race of slaves, as this word implies

    Votes: 13 36.1%
  • Total voters
    36
If it was possible to examine Jesus's DNA, would we find God's haplogroup?
 
Does God pass on mitochondrial DNA?
 
warpus said:
God didn't impregnate Mary, she gave birth to Jesus as a virgin. Right? Doesn't that mean that there was no sperm involved and thus no fatherly DNA? Just "magic" ?
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But then how is God the father of Jesus?
 
Doesn't that mean that there was no sperm involved and thus no fatherly DNA? Just "magic" ?
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"The Holy Spirit" was involved in impregnating Mary. It kind of validates the argument that [Jewish] ethnicity can spread by wind.

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Why are Slavs so concerned about all things "Slavic?"
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In case of South Slavs, probably becuase of dat evil Murica:


Link to video.
 
bhavv said:
But then how is God the father of Jesus?
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It is never claimed that he is the biological father, just that he is the father. Right?

Besides, God and Jesus are different faces of the same entity. So it doesn't really make sense that one of them was responsible for the creation of the other. Then again, who the hell understands the trinity anyway..
 
Putting the theological debate aside, I support the theory of total nonexistence of the Serbs.
 
Domen said:

Link to video.
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Couldn't watch that for even a full minute before they trotted out the BS about "ethnic tensions" and that "historically they all wanted to kill each other". Yugoslavia was primarily brought down by an economic crisis. The "ancient hatred" doesn't go back further than the early 1900's when the new Serbian state became swept up in nationalism and irredentist wankery. Serbia's historical arch enemies were always the Greeks, Turks, and Bulgarians.
 
Coming back to that discussion about Y-DNA haplogroup R1a - I made a genealogical visualization:

http://s17.postimg.org/hsnaex6xb/R1a_tree.png

R1a_tree.png


Daco-Thracian is a hypothetical language family that was probably closely related to Balto-Slavic language family:

https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Classification_of_Thracian&redirect=no#Daco-Thracian

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dacian_language

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thracian_language
 

Attachments

  • R1a tree.png
    R1a tree.png
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In Russian, the word "honour" (гонор) means arrogance. Political correctness is an гонорable thing!
 
I'm still tripping over the idea that "slave" and "Slav" are supposed to be related in the first place. I'd be surprised if USians didn't overwhelmingly associate "slave" with either Africans or young females.
 
I'm still tripping over the idea that "slave" and "Slav" are supposed to be related in the first place
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This similarity is either a coincidence, or "slaves" originated from Slavs in times when Slavs were Pagan.

Please note that by the end of the 6th century, Pope Gregory the Great introduced the principles of the "Societas Christiana" - one of those principles was: baptized people must be excluded from slavery. Slavs at that time were still Pagan, and Pagan lands became the natural place to go get some slaves after you no longer could enslave fellow Christians. Also Muslims could be enslaved. But at that time Muslims were militarily stronger than Western Europe, and those were Muslim slave hunters who raided South-Western Europe, the Frankish Empire and the Byzantine Empire - not the other way around.

Another theory is that "slaves" originated from Slavs not because they were enslaved, but because of what they did with their own slaves:

http://forums.civfanatics.com/showthread.php?p=13829438#post13829438

"Strategikon", written by Emperor Maurice (539-602), contains this highly thought-provoking passage:

"(...) Slavs, unlike all other peoples, do not keep prisoners of war in perpetual slavery, but they demarcate for them a limited period of time, after which they give them a choice: they can either return home if they purchase their freedom, or stay among them as free people and friends. (...)"
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This is probable IMHO. Because this is what made Slavs unique (according to "Strategikon"), while becoming slaves was not specific to Slavs. At that time slavery was widespread and slaves originated from all ethnic and linguistic groups, not just Slavs (even if Slavs were overrepresented).

I'd be surprised if USians didn't overwhelmingly associate "slave" with either Africans or young females.
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But this word is much older than the USA! :D

The origin of this word probably dates back to the Frankish Empire - Charlemagne's campaigns against Slavs.

According to some linguists (like for example Max Vasmer) the word originated even earlier - before 594 AD.

But Max Vasmer was racist against Slavs, though it doesn't necessarily discredit his theory on time of origin.

As for Charlemagne - he not only fought against Pagan Slavs, but also against Pagan Saxons.

He rather enslaved more Saxons than Slavs, actually. At least sources mention how many Saxons he enslaved.
 
Thanks for the knowledge, Domen. :)
 
And the term "Slavs" originated from a Greco-Latin corruption of "Sloveni", which was how at least some of Proto-Slavic-speakers called themselves.

BTW according to Jordanes and Procopius, people who spoke that language which we call Proto-Slavic, had at least three different names.

One of branches of speakers of that language was known as the Antes. So "Slavic" - "Antic" and "Slavs" - "Ants" can be used interchangeably. :lol:

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Jordanes wrote about Slavic-speaking nations in the 500s AD:

"(...) Within these rivers lies Dacia, encircled by the lofty Carpathians as by a crown. Near their left ridge, which inclines toward the north, and beginning at the source of the Vistula, the populous race of the Venethi dwell, occupying a great expanse of land. Though their names are now dispersed amid various clans and places, yet they are chiefly called Sclaveni and Antes. The abode of the Sclaveni extends from the city of Noviodunum and the lake called Mursianus [marshes at the juncture of the Drava and the Danube] to the Dniester, and northward as far as the Vistula. (...) The Antes (...) dwelling above the curve of the sea of Pontus [Black Sea coast near Odessa], spread from the Dniester to the Dnieper, rivers that are many days' journey apart. (...)"
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Procopius wrote about Slavic-speaking nations in the 500s AD:

"(...) For these nations, the Sclaveni and the Antes, are not ruled by one man, but they have lived from of old under a democracy, and consequently everything which involves their welfare, whether for good or for ill, is referred to the people. It is also true that in all other matters, practically speaking, these two barbarian peoples have had from ancient times the same institutions and customs. For they believe that one god, the maker of lightning, is alone lord of all things, and they sacrifice to him cattle and all other victims. (...) When they enter battle, the majority of them go against their enemy on foot carrying shields and javelins in their hands, but they never wear corselets. Indeed, some of them do not wear even a shirt or a cloak, but gathering their trews up as far as to their private parts they enter into battle with their opponents. And both the two peoples have also the same language [Late Common Slavic], an utterly barbarous tongue. Nay further, they do not differ at all from one another in appearance. For they are all exceptionally tall and stalwart men, while their bodies and hair are neither very fair or blonde, nor indeed do they incline entirely to the dark type, but they are all slightly ruddy in color. And they live a hard life, giving no heed to bodily comforts, just as the Massagetae do. (...) In fact, the Sclaveni and the Antes actually had a single name in the remote past; for they were both called Spori in olden times, because, I suppose, living apart one man from another, they inhabit their country in a sporadic fashion. And in consequence of this very fact they hold a great amount of land; for they alone inhabit the greatest part of the northern bank of the Danube. So much then may be said regarding these peoples. (...)"
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IglooDude said:
I'm still tripping over the idea that "slave" and "Slav" are supposed to be related in the first place. I'd be surprised if USians didn't overwhelmingly associate "slave" with either Africans or young females.
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So not only are Americans biased against Slavs, they are biased against being biased against Slavs. The arrogance of the West is once again very offensive.
 
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