Will this convince you then?
Daniel 7:13
"In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence.
Matthew 24:30
"At that time the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and all the nations of the earth will mourn. They will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky, with power and great glory.
Mark 14:62
"I am," said Jesus. "And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven."
John, Daniel, Matthew and Mark all said the same thing about Jesus. Mark and Matthew even quoted Jesus explicitly. John's statement in Revelation 1:7 (which I quoted in my earlier post) is a paraphrase of what Jesus said. The Bible has many writers, yes; but God is the author of it all.*
As far as I can tell, Daniel doesn't say anything about Jesus - he simply refers to a "son of man". If Matthew and Mark report Jesus' words correctly, then Jesus simply quotes Daniel. Note, in particular, that Jesus does not claim in those quotes that he
is "the son of man". Even if he did, I don't see what's so remarkable about all this. If there were very good reason to suppose that Jesus had never read Daniel or heard about this passage in that book, then you might have something - but since Jesus presumably knew this passage from his childhood (it was, in fact, a central passage in apocalypticism of his day) I'm not sure what his quoting it proves.
Also, I don't know what translation of the Bible you are using, but it is inaccurate. The Mark quotation should not be "I am... and..."; it should be "So you say... but...". He actually denies to be the Messiah in this passage (the equivalent passage in Matthew changes it completely to ensure that Jesus claims to be the Messiah). Not that this is very relevant, of course, since "Messiah" does not mean the same thing as "son of man", but I think you should be wary of that translation if it can actually reverse the meaning of a text like that...
Similarly, I don't see the evidential force of citing all the Gospel writers as testifying to Jesus' words. Given that Luke and Matthew simply copied Mark, together they constitute only one source. Even if they were all independent, that would mean only that we have particularly good reason for supposing that Jesus really said it. But what does that prove? It doesn't mean Jesus was
right, does it?
Are you saying that nothing ever predicted in the Bible has ever come true, so why should we believe it? On the other hand, if the Bible's record on prophecy is accurate, why wouldn't we believe its future predictions? Which view do you subscribe to?
Neither. You present a false dichotomy. I don't say that nothing predicted in the Bible has ever come true or that everything in the Bible has come true. But I do say that many of the predictions in there have not come true. I have already mentioned Jonah's preaching to the people of Nineveh (he said the city would be destroyed, but it wasn't; note that he did
not say it would be destroyed unless they repented). And 1 Kings 22, where God instructs his prophets to lie to the king. We could also mention Ezekiel 29:8-14, according to which Egypt will be completely desolated and uninhabited for forty years. This comes immediately after a terribly long and dramatic prophecy (16-28) that Tyre would be permanently destroyed by Nebuchadnezzar - in fact he never defeated the place at all, let alone destroyed it (which is confirmed in other sources and also in Ez 28:18-19 itself!).
There are other well-known discrepancies between prophecies and what really happened. Compare Jeremiah 34:4-5 (Zedekiah will die peacefully) with Jeremiah 52:10-11 (Zedekiah dies in anything but a peaceful way).
I've already mentioned Jesus' prediction of the Temple's destruction in Mark 13:2 - look again and you'll see that he predicts that not one stone will be left on another. Well, there are still stones of that Temple resting on each other - that's what the Wailing Wall is.
The fact that a prophecy and its non-fulfilment can be recorded in the same biblical book suggests strongly that the biblical writers didn't see this sort of thing as a problem. They didn't think that the sign of a divine prophecy is fulfilment. I'm sure you know that Deuteronomy 13:1-3 speaks of the possibility of false prophets who nevertheless predict future events with perfect accuracy. If it's possible to make accurate predictions but be a false prophet, and possible to make inaccurate predictions but be a true prophet, then what is the criterion? That Deuteronomy passage suggests that the only criterion of whether a prophet comes from God is whether or not he tells people to love only God. And whilst that may be very edifying, I'm not personally inclined to believe everything someone says simply because they tell me to love only God, especially if God is not particularly bothered about ensuring that everything his prophets say is true anyway.
I'm really not clear what you're trying to argue for. Are you saying that everything in the Bible is true because some things are true? But that would clearly not be a good argument (there are probably true things in
The Da Vinci Code too, but it doesn't follow that it's all true) and besides, you haven't given any examples of things in the Bible that are true, only things in the Bible that are supposedly supported by other bits of the Bible. If you're trying to argue that the Bible is wholly consistent, then simply citing texts that support each other won't prove that either - you need to look at the passages that seem to contradict each other and explain why they don't. But of course, even if you could show the Bible to be completely consistent, it still wouldn't make it true.
The Da Vinci Code is internally consistent but it's not true.
These things you mention are trivial truths.
I don't know what you mean by a "trivial truth". Even so, they are still true, and they are still known without having to use "the scientific method" that Perfection insists is the sole method of knowing any truth whatsoever. Yet I would say that not only are these truths that are known by other means, but the scientific method itself wouldn't be applicable without assuming them. Their supposed "triviality" is really neither here nor there.