Were Ancient Macedonians Greek?

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Just as a particularly egregious point of fact - no it doesn't. It's entirely possible that people migrated into Greece with different DNA but not into Southern Italy.


Quote your source - this sounds too obviously hilarious. And you are suggesting that Greeks and Southern Italians are clones

1. I never said they're clones, no one is claiming this and please don't degrade this conversation.
Also note that 0.000 means with precision of higher than the 3rd decimal, and as you can see bellow this is accurate.

Title
European Population Genetic Substructure: Further Definition of Ancestry Informative Markers for Distinguishing among Diverse European Ethnic Groups


"...The paired Fst table confirms that the closest population to Greeks are Italians (negative Fst=-0.0001) and Tuscans (Fst=0.0005)...."


dendrogram_tian 1.jpeg

P.S.: though I provide link to the research and is visible to me while I edit the post, it's not visible after I press "save".
I don't know what is going on. You can search the research on the web by its title. It is from ncbi.nlm.nih.gov



2.


The research which gave the results of the image you presented (right above), regarding the frequency of the R1 haplogroup, in the case of France (for a start) used a sample of people of less than 100 individuals, and this while the population of this country was on 1 January 2013, 66,394,000.
The samples from the others countries are equally small.




Modern Greeks actually have 1,9% of Sub-Saharan Black African admixture

Actually it is 1,1%




So I wouldn't be surprised if many Macedonian Slavs are genetically descendants of Ancient Macedonians

a. this is only an assumption and for some a wish. History recorded things differently.
b. I'll remind you again of their own 6-year-long "Skopje Forensics Medicine Institute" research, which cluster the self-declared "Macedonians" of today, with the Serbs, the Bulgarians and the Croats. They never denied their Slavic origins.
c. There's no ancient "Macedonian" gene. CONFIRMED
d. The only thing we solved today and beyond any doubt regarding this region, is that the greeks are residents of this region for three thousand years.

So, if you ask me, this is only a wish for some people.




All Europeans cluster to each other "more or less"

Actually all humans on Planet Earth cluster to each other.
I asked you before and I'll ask you again to please not play with words.
What I meant is that the Slavic people come from the same stock and that's an undeniable fact.


 
All Europeans cluster to each other "more or less"

Actually all humans on Planet Earth cluster to each other.

Not really (if you know what it means "to cluster"):

http://jaymans.files.wordpress.com/2014/05/global-genetic-distances-map.jpg



I'll remind you again of their own 6-year-long "Skopje Forensics Medicine Institute" research, which cluster the self-declared "Macedonians" of today, with the Serbs, the Bulgarians and the Croats. They never denied their Slavic origins.

Are Macedonians denying their Slavic origins though? I don't recall this.

IIRC they claim that Ancient Macedonians were Slavic too, like modern ones.
 
Not really (if you know what it means "to cluster")

My friend, are you by any chance trying to convince me that you're not trying to make a serious conversation?
It is not polite to play with words. I thing I clearly made my point saying that all Slavs come from the same stock. That's an undeniable fact.



Are Macedonians denying their Slavic origins though? I don't recall this.

Yes they do.
That's the FIRST you should have known starting this thread.
Or maybe you already know it. I don't know... To use your own words "this sounds too obviously hilarious".



Ancient Macedonians were Slavic too, like modern ones.

This is a joke. Historically, culturally, genetically or any other way you see it. It is sad to even reproduce it...

The 2001 Arnaiz-Villena research besides "proving" the nowadays Slavs that self-declared themselves as "Macedonians" are direct descendants of the ancient Macedons (very convenient for FYROM's 10-year old at the time idiotic propaganda - of course no macedonian gene exists), it was also "proving" that;
Greeks are very similar to Ethiopians and east Africans but very distant from other south Europeans (also very convenient for FYROM's 10-year old at the time idiotic propaganda); and that the Japanese are nearly identical to west and south Africans. :lol:

The responce of the scientific community of geneticists to that research was total.
This is a paper by three of the most respected ones (Title; "Dropped genetics paper lacked scientific merit");
http://www.readcube.com/articles/10.1038/415115b


Note also that the editor of the most respected magazine on the field which published this research ("Human Immunology") apologized publicly and asked from the subscribers of his magazine to ignore the article in question or to PHYSICALLY REMOVE THE PAPERS FROM THE MAGAZINE.
You understand what this means... right?


...And now you seriously presenting me an IDENTICAL with the Arnaiz-Villena long dropped and-nowadays-international-joke research..?

I'm close to convinced that you don't want a serious conversation. If so I only wonder; why you started this thread??


After this, one more question rises...
How come you keep reproducing only and just FYROM's arguments, to the point that you are even reproducing long dropped arguments, that are dropped not only by the scientific community AS A WHOLE, but even by the Skopje nationalistic administration itself?

Is there a logical answer to this question?
 
I met one Macedonian on another forum, he was claiming that Ancient Macedonians were Proto-Slavic and that Slavs originated in the Balkans. So, he wasn't denying Slavic roots of modern Macedonians.

I thing I clearly made my point saying that all Slavs come from the same stock

Slavic language has a common Ancient ancestor language (linguistic stock), but it doesn't mean that all modern Slavic-speakers are descendants of those original Ancient Proto-Slavic speakers.

BTW - do you also think that all Greeks come from the same stock?
 
I met one Macedonian on another forum, he was claiming that Ancient Macedonians were Proto-Slavic and that Slavs originated in the Balkans. So, he wasn't denying Slavic roots of modern Macedonians.


1. If he was to tell you that he came from Mars, would we now be talking that Marsians do exist or not?


2.
Ancient Macedonians were Proto-Slavic and that Slavs originated in the Balkans
??????

There's NO HISTORIAN, NOR UNIVERSITY, NOR ARCHAEOLOGICAL INSTITUTION, NOR ANTHROPOLOGIST on Planet Earth to claim such idiotic UNHISTORICAL thing.
Most of them would prefer to throw a desk or something on anyone who would claim susch thing, than to continue listening to such craps, that most possible are inspired by a "Xena the Warrior Princess" episode.

A smal minority of heretic "scientists" in Skopje claim that.


3.
So, he wasn't denying Slavic roots of modern Macedonians

Nooo... He didn't denied his slavic origins, he was just talking about a PARALLEL UNIVERSE!

Did he by any chance claimed that he was Stephen Hawking or Cpt. James Kirk of the SS Enterprise?
This would give a close to rational explanation...


The Slavs are an Indo-European ethno-linguistic group living in Central Europe, Eastern Europe, Southeast Europe, North Asia and Central Asia, who speak the Indo-European Slavic languages, and share, to varying degrees, certain cultural traits and historical backgrounds.
From the early 6th century they spread to inhabit most of Central and Eastern Europe and Southeast Europe.
Slavic groups also ventured as far as Scandinavia, constituting elements amongst the Vikings; while at the other geographic extreme, Slavic mercenaries fighting for the Byzantines and Arabs settled Asia Minor and even as far as Syria. Later, East Slavs (specifically, Russians and Ukrainians) colonized Siberia and Central Asia.
Every Slavic ethnicity has emigrated to other parts of the world.

-Geography and ethnic geography of the Balkans
-Cultural transmission between Slavs and Scandinavians. Mats Roslund. 2008
-The origin of Rus. O Pritsak; 1981
-Peter Somogyi. 2008
-Fiona Hill, Russia 2004
-Robert Greenall, 2005
-Terry Kirby, 2006.
-Catholic Encyclopedia Barford, 2001



Slavic language has a common Ancient ancestor language (linguistic stock), but it doesn't mean that all modern Slavic-speakers are descendants of those original Ancient Proto-Slavic speakers.

"In addition, Slav is an identifier for the common ethnic group".
Cambridge University Press, 2001

Cambridge (as all the others) is talking of Slavs being an Ethinc group!!
...and "linguistic stock" DO NOT define ethnic groups on its own.


The location of the Slavic homeland (WHICH NONE is placing on the Greek Peninsula, and hence on the ancient greek kingdom of Macedonia) has been the subject of significant debate.
Not if they come from the same stock or not, which is an undeniable fact.



BTW - do you also think that all Greeks come from the same stock?

The Greeks is not the discussion here!!
The Slavs who nowadays self-declared themselves as "Macedonians" is...




So this brings me back to my previous fundamental question;

How come you keep reproducing only and just FYROM's arguments, to the point that you are even reproducing long dropped arguments, that are dropped (and LITERALLY DECOMPOSED) not only by the scientific community AS A WHOLE, but even by the Skopje nationalistic administration itself?

Is there a rational answer to this question?

(besides the uneducated guy who... told you those unhistorical IDIOCIES that refer to a parallel-universe, and who you seem to understood too well (I have to admit) and incorporated everything he idiotically claimed... Sorry but by reading your detailed posts and the explanation to that ("...I met a guy in a forum and he claimed..."), sounds and seems like this guy actually infused these things in to you.
To use your own words again "this sounds too obviously hilarious".)
 

I just quoted what a Macedonian guy claimed. Here another Macedonian-made video: :D


Link to video.

"In addition, Slav is an identifier for the common ethnic group".
Cambridge University Press, 2001

Interesting, so we must create a common Pan-Slavic State in Europe.

Did you know that Slavs are the most numerous part of inhabitants of Europe?

Some 250 million up to 300 million inhabitants of Europe are Slavs.

The Greeks is not the discussion here!!

You say this! You say so! :crazyeye: :mischief: But look what is the title of this thread...

The Slavs are an Indo-European ethno-linguistic group living in Central Europe, Eastern Europe, Southeast Europe, North Asia and Central Asia, who speak the Indo-European Slavic languages, and share, to varying degrees, certain cultural traits and historical backgrounds.
From the early 6th century they spread to inhabit most of Central and Eastern Europe and Southeast Europe.
Slavic groups also ventured as far as Scandinavia, constituting elements amongst the Vikings; while at the other geographic extreme, Slavic mercenaries fighting for the Byzantines and Arabs settled Asia Minor and even as far as Syria. Later, East Slavs (specifically, Russians and Ukrainians) colonized Siberia and Central Asia.
Every Slavic ethnicity has emigrated to other parts of the world.

OK, but now explain this to Makedonians. And by the way how should they call themselves?

Because apparently they don't want to be Bulgarians and they don't want to be Serbs.

Names Slovenia and Slovakia are already taken. By the way Slovenes used to be called Winds.
 
I just quoted what a Macedonian guy claimed. :D

Only you "enriched" it with too many creepy details of things and arguments that even the vast majority of the Slavs who self-declared themselves as "Macedonians" don't claim today, but only a small group of radical-right ultranationalistic propagandists do.

Such as this video you're quoting here;



Do you know what this video is and stands for??
Let me enlighten you...

The people of this country who are Slavs and migrated in this area the 7th century AD, are claiming that they're Alexander's descendants and that Macedonia is devided, with a large part of it comeing under Greek sovereignty after the Balkan Wars the year 1913.
Notice that the map shown above, includes 4-5 Greek districts including those of Thessaloniki and Chalkidiki among other regions.

Yet the undeniable truth is;
1. This country which was formed in 1991, is settled on the region of Paeonia by 100%, a region different and separated from the ancient greek kingdom of Macedonia, that got conquered by Philip II at 354-355 BC, and which soon it got abondoned by the Macedons (which explains the ZERO macedonian archaeological findings in this country), and thus it was NEVER EVER part of the kingdom of Macedonia.

Unless of course one considers that Paeonia by being conquered by the Macedons, it became Macedonia and it will CONTINUE being considered as Macedonia simply because for some BRΙEF time period in history, it got conquered by the Macedons.
And what about the others who conquered this region?
What about the Romans, the Slavs, the Ottomans???

EVEN if we accept this, what would be the case of all the other regions that got conquered by the Macedons???
Can the Egyptians call themselves today "Macedonians", and rename their country to "New Republic of Macedonia"???

And what about the regions the Roman Empire conquered or the Ottoman Empire??
Can they call themselves (allow me) "Italians" today and their country "Republic of Italy"??

Would this be historically, culturally or any other way accurate and accepted?


Of course anyone can call himself as he wants!!
But what happens when after the "naming" (or renaming in this case) claims of any kind follow(in this case teritorial claims)??


These radical-right nationalists today are outrageously claiming that Greece "stole" part of their land, refering to original ancient greek kingdom of Macedonia settled for 3000 years in Greece, after they renamed their land from Paeonia to "Macedonia" !!

The question is; Can one devide two things from each other, that are ALREADY by definition separate??

I (and every historian, anthropologist, mathematician, physicist and every University and Archaeological Institution) don't think so...
A politician on the other hand could do that, after taking the lolipop from a child's hand.




2. Eugene N. Borza was a professor emeritus of ancient history at Pennsylvania State University. He has written many works on the ancient kingdom of Macedonia.
The American Philological Association refers to E. Borza as the "Macedonian specialist".

He's the one and only historian who to some point in his early works, he claimed some things that seemed very convenient for use in FYROM's propaganda, and so they did used them.
Yet it is OBVIOUS that they never got to follow his work...

He on the other side evolved, and he claimed that;

Eugene Borza, "Macedonian Redux" p.260 (quote)
"On the other hand the (so-called) "Slavomacedonians" (Slavs entered Balkans 10 centuries after the demise of the Ancient Kingdom of Alexander) ARE A NEWLY EMERGENT PEOPLE IN SEARCH OF A PAST, to help them legitimise their precarious present, as they attempt to establish their singular identity in a world dominated historically by Greeks, Serbs and Bulgarians.
The 20th century of a "Macedonian ethnicity" and its recent evolution into independent statehood following the Yugoslavic collapse of 1991, has followed a rocky road.
In order to survive the vicissitudes of the Balkan history and politics, the "Slavomacedonians", NEED THEIR OWN SO CALLED MACEDONIAN ETHNICITY which evolved for NO MORE than a century, and thus it seemed natural for them and appropriate to call their NEW country "Macedonia" AND TO ATTEMPT TO provide SOME cultural references to bolster ethnic survival..."



...and Borza continues;


"Modern Slavs, both from Former Yug. Rep. of Macedonia and Bulgarians cannot establish a link with antiquity, in contrast with the Greeks.
The Slavs entered the Balkans 10 centuries after the demise of the Ancient Kingdom of Alexander.
Only the most radical-right nationalists Slavic emigrants of the US, Canada and Australia even attempt to establish connection with antiquity...
"


I can quote many statements by top scientists of the field, that many are humiliating the FTROM's claims, in a way never seen before.



Interesting, so we must create a common Pan-Slavic State in Europe.

Cambridge history is written and it is continue being written by hundreds of the most respected scientists in their field.
I'm sure you know that...



Did you know that Slavs are the most numerous part of inhabitants of Europe?
Some 250 million up to 300 million inhabitants of Europe are Slavs.

This is irrelative to what we discuss.

The Greeks is not the discussion here!!
You say this! You say so! :crazyeye: :mischief: But look what is the title of this thread...

I thought the thread is about the Macedonians... who of course they were profoundly Greeks, yet
as you obviously reproduce -close to claim, even if it's unwittingly- the outrageous lies of FYROM's radical-right ultra-nationalist propagandists who wanna go to war with Greece for something that were NEVER theirs to claim,
I find it proper to first deal with this UNHISTORICAL crap, before going on...



OK, but now explain this to Makedonians.


What do you think is going on the last two decades when their claims started?
(I don't mean by me...)
Just imagine for second going back to Nazi Germany, and attempt to convise the members of the Nazi party (the simple ppl), that they're not the higher race, the black ppl, the jews, the gipsies, the polish , the russians (the slavs in general), the greeks etc. are ppl exactly like the germans etc.

The brainwashing in FYROM keeps on going as we speak.

By the way, think for a moment... Their claims of being "macedonians" started two decades ago, not 10, 5, 3 or even 2 centuries ago.
All this time before the late 1980's early 1990's, they were claiming to be other things;

Elisabeth Barker
[ The Royal Institute of International Affairs, year 1950, p.10 ]

"...All that can safely be said is that during the last eighty years many MORE seem to have considered themselves Bulgarian, or closely linked to Bulgaria (she reports about the people of the Former Yugoslav Republic region which Josef Tito started calling "Macedonia" the 1950s), than have considered themselves Serbian, or closely linked to Serbia (or Yugoslavia). Only the people of the Skoplje region, in the north west, have ever shown much tendency to regard themselves as Serbs.
There is NO DOUBT that they are southern Slavs; they have a language, or a group of varying dialects, that is grammatically akin to Bulgarian but phonetically in some respects akin to Serbian, and which has certain quite distinctive features of its own (from the proto-Slavic language)..."




And by the way how should they call themselves?
Because apparently they don't want to be Bulgarians and they don't want to be Serbs.
Names Slovenia and Slovakia are already taken.

Don't wanna be this or that..?
This sounds like choosing a name from a list.

The land this (born in 1991) country is settled by 100%, is known since antiquity as "Paeonia".
There're even TODAY Paeonian toponyms in this country;
There's a place named TODAY "Kanda" after Paeonian God of War "KANDAON".

They should name it "Paeonia", but you see it's not so shiny as being "descendants" of Alexander the Great, as propaganda for decades is brainwashing the minds of children who today are grown men.




P.S.: and to avoid any misunderstandings on the location of Paeonia;
Two indisputable historical facts;


Livy’s account of the creation of the Roman province of Macedonia (45.29.7 and 12) makes clear that the Paionians lived north of those mountains (which form today the geographically natural northern limits of Greece) and south of the Dardanians who were in today’s Kosovo.

Strabo (7. frag 4) is even more succinct in saying that Paionia was north of Macedonia and the only connection from one to the other was (and is today) through the narrow gorge of the Axios (or the Slavic "Vardar") River.
 
This is irrelative to what we discuss.

Quite related because 1) you say Slavs are all from one stock, 2) they are the largest % of Europeans.

3) Conclusion - probably a typical Slavic family throughout the centuries was something like:



Macedonia is divided, with a large part of it comeing under Greek sovereignty after the Balkan Wars the year 1913.

So called Aegean Macedonia. Do you know what was the ethnic composition of this region before 1913? ;)

1. This country is settled on the region of Paeonia by 100%

Today - yes. But do you know what was the ethnic composition of Aegean Macedonia before 1913? Who lived there?

Can the Egyptians call themselves today "Macedonians", and rename their country to "New Republic of Macedonia"???

Maybe they should rename their country to Arabia, because they are Arabs and speak Arabic (except for Coptic minority).

Good that you mentioned Egypts. Because Ancient Egyptians did not speak the same language as Arabs of Egypt today.

This is the same story as with Macedonia.

But what happens when after the "naming" (or renaming in this case) claims of any kind follow (in this case teritorial claims)?

You tell me. Greece after 01.01.1822 wanted a lot of territories which historically belonged to Greek city-states or to the Byzantine Empire.

Even though many of those territories were not inhabited by Greek majority anymore at that time (during the 19th century).

They should name it "Paeonia", but you see it's not so shiny as being "descendants" of Alexander the Great

Paeonia? OK. BTW - Alexander the Great had no grandchildren = he has no living descendants today.
 
Macedonia is divided, with a large part of it comeing under Greek sovereignty after the Balkan Wars the year 1913.
Even though many of those territories were not inhabited by Greek majority anymore at that time (during the 19th century).

Large part of modern Northern Greece was inhabited in majority by Slavic Paeonians in 1913:

http://postimg.org/image/wvq29xr83/full/

Spoiler :



So Slavs - no matter how we call them - are correct that Greece deprived them of their lands, and also of access to the Sea.

After 1913 you took their territories - areas where they lived - and deported them.

In Aegean Macedonia - which is now Northern Greece - Slavs were more numerous than Greeks:

Population of Aegean Macedonia in 1913 (according to census by Greek authorities):

Total population - 1,052,227 inhabitants - including:

Slavs - 428,800 (40,8%)
Turks - 274,052 (26,0%)
Greeks - 236,755 (22,5%)
Jews - 68,206 (6,5%) ==========> almost all of them in Salonica
Vlachs - 44,414 (4,2%)




=============================

Population of the city of Salonica in 1913 (according to census by Greek authorities):

Total population - 157,889 inhabitants - including:

Jews - 61,439 (38,9%)
Turks - 45,867 (29,0%)
Greeks - 39,956 (25,3%)
Slavs - 10,627 (6,8%)

Proportion of Jews to Turks and to Greeks in Salonica between 1500 and 1950:




=============================
=============================

Population of Aegean Macedonia, excluding the city of Salonica (according to census by Greek authorities):

Total population - 894,338 inhabitants - including:

Slavs - 418,173 (46,8%)
Turks - 228,185 (25,5%)
Greeks - 196,799 (22,0%)
Vlachs - 44,414 (5,0%)
Jews - 6,767 (0,7%)


=============================

Bulgarian perspective:

http://www.promacedonia.org/en/gphillip/ia/ia_introduction.html



Bulgarian Ethnic Territory lost at the Treaty of Berlin (June 1878) from San Stefano Bulgaria:

- [1] given to Serbia - [2] and [3] returned to Turkey - [4] given to Romania.

Slavomacedonians argue that they are not Bulgarians, so we can replace "Bulgarian Ethnic Territory" by "South-East Slavic Ethnic territory".

Because we can agree that both Bulgarians and Slavomacedonians belong to the Eastern branch of South Slavic peoples.
 
You understand of course that you haven't opposed not one of my arguments and never answered as single question...

It comes as no surprise that you continue reproducing FYROM's outrageous claims.
You now reached the point where those from FYROM (...not you) tell you -having all their childish and propaganda-material unhistorical arguments DECOMPOSED-
"where were the greeks before 1913??"


Quite related because 1) you say Slavs are all from one stock, 2) they are the largest % of Europeans.

3) Conclusion - probably a typical Slavic family throughout the centuries was something like:



I don't care how a Slavic family looks like and I don't see any point knowning...



Large part of modern Northern Greece was inhabited in majority by Slavic Paeonians in 1913

Who were brought as occupiers...

So Slavs - no matter how we call them - are correct that Greece deprived them of their lands, and also of access to the Sea.
After 1913 you took their territories - areas where they lived - and deported them.

Greece never took anything from the Slavs.
Greece took back the ancient Greek kingdom of Macedonia, which was taken from the Romans (with greeks inhabidating it), the from the Slavs (with greeks inhabidating it), then returned to Greek hands as "Christianized Roman Empire of the Greek Nation" (with greeks inhabidating it), then taken by the Ottomans (with greeks inhabidating it), and finally the Greeks took it back FROM THE OTTOMANS.


In Aegean Macedonia - which is now Northern Greece - Slavs were more numerous than Greeks

This is IRRELATIVE. The Slavs, the Turks, the Bulgarians were occupiers. Northern Greece were in Greek hands for 1000 years before the Ottomans, and for 2000 years before the Slavs (aprox.)

...And let me remind you AGAIN this;
There's no place named "Aegean Macedonia".
It was the Nazis the early 1940s who named this region after this name, who they were planning to pass it to their at the time allies the Yugoslavs as they did gave greek territories to all their allies.
There's no place or term with this name in Global Geography NOR in Global History.


Slavomacedonians argue that they are not Bulgarians, so we can replace "Bulgarian Ethnic Territory" by "South-East Slavic Ethnic territory".
Because we can agree that both Bulgarians and Slavomacedonians belong to the Eastern branch of South Slavic peoples

The Slavs who self-declared themselves "Macedonians" cluster with the Bulgarians (as their own 6-year-long DNA research proved), not only genetically, but culturally, and linguistically.
YES, both of them are Slavs of the same stock (belong to the South Slavic people if you wish - makes no difference to me).


So called Aegean Macedonia. Do you know what was the ethnic composition of this region before 1913?
Who lived there?

Greeks, Slavs, Bulgarians, Turks, Vlachs and Jews.

First let me remind you this;
There's no place named "Aegean Macedonia".
It was the Nazis the early 1940s who named this region after this name, who they were planning to pass it to their at the time allies the Yugoslavs as they did gave greek territories to all their allies.
There's no place or term with this name in Global Geography NOR in Global History.

It's like competing in mathematics, and one uses a theorem which is only accpeted in his head.



Yes I do know tha the ethnic composition of the are before 1913.

1. Why would you care ?
2. How that serves the thread? As you said "But look what is the title of this thread...". Does this question of yours serves in any way the title of the thread?
3.
Suppose a country named A invades another named B, and A pushes away the inabidants of B,
does this makes the conquered territory HISTORICALLY A-land?

NO!!! ...but only conquered A-land, and OCCUPIED B-land.

All of the residents of Macedonia (settled in northern Greece by 100% or 3000 years) before 1913, if not Greeks, they where brought there and they were occupiers one or more generations.
No further discussion on this matter is needed.



Maybe they should rename their country to Arabia, because they are Arabs and speak Arabic (except for Coptic minority).

Strange that you say that...
1. You claim the Arabs were brought in Egypt, as in the case of the Slavs who self-declared themselves "Macedonians" 2-decades ago who migrated in the Balkans the 7th AD
2. and that they should name their country "Arabia".
We agree the Slavs of the self-declared "Republika Makedonjia" should name their country after their origins... Slavic origins.
Let's say "Slavia" or as I proposed you "Paeonia", after the land this country is settled by 100%.

Let me remind you here that this country was born in 1991 !!!


Good that you mentioned Egypts. Because Ancient Egyptians did not speak the same language as Arabs of Egypt today.

But you already claimed that the nowadays Egyptians ;
they are Arabs and speak Arabic (except for Coptic minority)

The Greeks inside the self-declared "Republika Makedonjia" are minority too.

The Egyptians can't be an example you can use...
Actually you can't use any example in order to justify FYROM's idiotic-unhistorical-outrageous propaganda.


This is the same story as with Macedonia.

No it is NOT. Period...



You tell me. Greece after 01.01.1822 wanted a lot of territories which historically belonged to Greek city-states or to the Byzantine Empire.
Even though many of those territories were not inhabited by Greek majority anymore at that time (during the 19th century).

First af all you're COMPLETELY WRONG saying that there where no Greek inhabidants in these areas.
The Greeks suffered SEVERAL genocides (2 during only the 20th century) and two pogroms (during the 20th century) by the Turks ,
untill finally people like you can claim that there were no greeks living in those places.


The Greeks inhabidated those places for 3000 years, until the mid 1950's.

So, if you wanna rephrase the question I'll understand...
 
The Greeks suffered two genocides and two pogroms by the Turks during the 20th century

By the Turks, not by the Slavic Macedonians. So why did you expell Slavic Macedonians from your lands ???

And why today Muslim Turks are the only officially recognized minority in Greece, while Slavs are not ???

Let's say "Slavia"

Why should they call themselves "Slavia" when the remaining 12 (or so) Slavic countries are not called like this.

Each of Slavic-speaking nations and countries has their own specific name, they are not called "Slavs" and "Slavia".

Nazis the early 1940s who named this region after this name, who they were planning to pass it to their at the time allies the Yugoslavs

Yugoslavs as Nazi allies ??? Well, certainly not Serbs. Yugoslavia was invaded by Germany in 1941, just like Greece.

3. Suppose a country named A invades another named B, and A pushes away the inabidants of B, does this makes the conquered territory HISTORICALLY A-land?

NO!!! ...but only conquered A-land, and OCCUPIED B-land.

So you claim that Slavs were only occupying Greek lands between year ca. 513 and year ca. 1913, for 1400 years ???

The Greeks inhabidated those places for 3000 years, until the mid 1950's.

Maybe they just conquered and then continued to occupy those places for 3000 years ???

Before Greeks there had been other peoples living there, like Pelasgians, Minoans, etc.

Let me remind you here that this country was born in 1991 !!!

Before that Macedonia was already one of member republics of the federation of Yugoslavia.

Country known as Greece was born in 1822. Before that there was never such a country.

For example Ancient Greek city-states were never united into one country called "Greece".
 
By the Turks, not by the Slavic Macedonians. So why did you expell Slavic Macedonians from your lands ???

First of all the fact that these Slavs were born there, does not make it "their lands". They came as occupiers.
I think I already answered that in a previous comment.
Nonetheless...

Here you are;
Greek government deported majority of Slavs

There were Slavs, Turks, Albanians, Vlachs, Bulgarians and Jews too (among the Greeks).
...And why NONE of the people with ethnicities above NEVER claimed to be "Macedonians"?

You are forgetting that the Slavs remained in this region, after the Ottomans conquered this region (right after them), when previously they (the Slavs) were brought in the region as occupiers.
Also the people with the ethnicities above remained too.


The greek government after the Balkan Wars, didn't just pushed away those people.
Greece complied to the Treaties signed by all sides, as all countries did.


You should see how Bulgaria, Turkey and Yugoslavia treated the greeks.
The Turks gifted the greeks two genocides during the 20th century + two pogroms.
Same thing tried the Bulgarians, who though they tried hard (killing tens of thousands of greeks), they missed the term "genocide" by an inch.


So the greeks got pushed away by Turks, Bulgarians and Yugoslavs too, as you should have known.

This is known as "exchange of population", and it always follow wars between neighbors.


And why today Muslim Turks are the only officially recognized minority in Greece, while Slavs are not ???

There's no Slavic minority in Greece, unless one can call minority a group of less than 2000 people... which none can!!
Also in Greece there's muslim minority. Not minority of turks.
Unless one can call the Greeks, the Irish, the Italians inhabidants of the U.S. of America, minorities... which none can !!

You're forgeting EU.
You think if there was such case, FYROM wouldn't made the best out of this through EU??? THEY CAN'T coz there is no such case of Slavic -or "macedonian" as they self-declare it- minority!!!



So you claim that Slavs were only occupying Greek lands between year ca. 513 and year ca. 1913, for 1400 years

NO I'M NOT !!!
Perhaps you forget what is known as "the Eastern Roman Empire of the Greeks" and its 1000 years of reign !!!
It is also known as the "Christianised E.Roman Empire of the Greeks". Rings any bell to you?

Why should they call themselves "Slavia"

I told you, they can name it "Paeonia" after the land this country is settled by 100%.

Sounds right if you consider that;
1. they're Slavs having no relation with the ancient (and the nowadays) macedons, who were (are) profoundly Greeks (even defined themselves as that !!)
2. their 1991 born country, is settled on PAEONIA by 100% and NOT on Macedonia which is settled by 100% in northern Greece for 3000 years
3. they don't speak the greek language as the ancient macedons did
4. they don't have the greek names the ancient macedons had
5. they ALL speak slavic, having ALL OF THEM slavic names
6. they have ZERO recorded history as macedonians, in COMPLETE contrast with the Greeks
etc.

Maybe they just conquered and then continued to occupy those places for 3000 years

This is an assumption...
Also you don't just conquer something for 3000 years,
and you can't compare this with the Slavic invasion.


Yugoslavs as Nazi allies ??? Well, certainly not Serbs. Yugoslavia was invaded by Germany in 1941, just like Greece.

The at the time Yugoslav king flirted with the Nazis. The Nazis promised to pass him what they (the Nazis by their own) named the in 1940 "Aegean Macedonia".
J.Tito finally decided to oppose Axis.
Tito is also responsible for unearthing the early 1910s Bulgarian plan of the country named "Macedonia".


A REMINDER

There's no place named "Aegean Macedonia".
It was the Nazis the early 1940s who named this region after this name, who they were planning to pass it to their at the time allies the Yugoslavs as they did gave greek territories to all their allies.
There's no place or term with this name in Global Geography NOR in Global History.
 
First of all the fact that these Slavs were born there, does not make it "their lands". They came as occupiers.

Yes they came as occupiers 1500 years ago.

English people also came to England as occupiers. Entire England should be returned back to Wales, I guess.

There's no Slavic minority in Greece

No? So what happened with them? Did you exterminate all of them?

BTW - we don't know this, because Greek population censuses don't count minorities, except for Muslim Turks.

Also in Greece there's muslim minority. Not minority of turks.

Your government calls them Turks. I can see that you are even more nationalistic than Greek government. Nice...

The Greeks inside the self-declared "Republika Makedonjia" are minority too.

So you can call Greeks in Macedonia a minority, but you can't call Slavs in Greece a minority ???

Unless one can call the Greeks, the Irish, the Italians inhabidants of the U.S. of America, minorities.

The USA is an immigration-based European "offshoot" post-colonial country in the New World.

Do not compare entirely immigration-based post-colonial Europe's "offshoots" to nation-states in the Old World.
 
I do not edit anything, I add new things (and by the way I didn't notice your answer since I did not refresh website).

You should also use the "refresh" button - and by the way, you are also editing your posts after I replied.

Also you don't just conquer something for 3000 years,
and you can't compare this with the Slavic invasion.

Why I can't compare ???

So occupation is only first 1500 years and next 1500 years is not occupation ???

"the Eastern Roman Empire of the Greeks"

No such name existed !!! It was simply the Eastern Roman Empire.

And even those of its citizens who spoke Greek language, called themselves the Romaioi and their language - Romeika.

Romaioi means Romans (in Greek language).

They were simply Romans who adopted Greek language, just like you and me adopted English language on this forum.
 
I do not edit anything, I add new things (and by the way I didn't notice your answer since I did not refresh website).

You should also use the "refresh" button - and by the way, you are also editing your posts.

I edit very small parts and AFTER I REFRESH AND see that there's no reply.

In my previous comment I had to make additions, because you made after I posted it...

Please wait for an answer first and/or notify me for the additions you made.


Please, YOU HAVE TO WAIT FOR MY ANSWER !!
 
So occupation is only first 1500 years and next 1500 years is not occupation ???


You again forget what is known as "the Christianized Roman Empire of the Greeks" and its 1000 years of reign !!!
The Slavs did not occupied this area for 1500 years.

No such name existed !!! It was simply the Eastern Roman Empire.

Byzantinist August Heisenberg (1869–1930) defined the Byzantine Empire as "the Christianised Roman empire of the Greek nation".
Byzantium was primarily known as the Empire of the Greeks by foreigners due to the predominance of Greek linguistic, cultural, and demographic elements.

Ahrweiler & Laiou 1998, p. vii;
Lapidge et al. 1999, p. 79;
Hidryma Meletōn Chersonēsou tou Haimou 1973, p. 331;
Ostrogorsky 1969, pp. 28, 146;
Gross 1999, p. 45;
Davies 1996, p. 135.


And even those of its citizens who spoke Greek language, called themselves the Romaioi and their language - Romeika.
Romaioi means Romans (in Greek language).
They were simply Romans who adopted Greek language, just like you and me adopted English language on this forum.

THIS IS TERRIBLY WRONG!!!

It wasn't "Romaioi" but "Romoioi" (sounds like Rom-e-e), which meant "citizens of Rome" AND NOT ROMANS.
This term were used by the Greeks the period when the name "Greek" was synonymous to PAGANIST, and the greeks suffered pogroms.
Yet it had nothing to do with the language and were ethnically Greeks.
(refresh your page)
 
Byzantinist August Heisenberg (1869–1930) defined the Byzantine Empire as "the Christianised Roman empire of the Greek nation".

Which is a 19th century invented name and concept. So as I wrote - such a name did not exist when the Eastern Roman Empire existed.

The Slavs did not occupied this area for 1500 years.

They did, for almost 1500 years.

Byzantium was primarily known as the Empire of the Greeks by foreigners due to the predominance of Greek linguistic, cultural, and demographic elements.

It is in my opinion impossible that majority of population of the Eastern Roman Empire were Greeks.

Please quote sources which estimate demographic structure and ethnic groups of the Eastern Roman Empire / Byzantine Empire.

Refresh.
 
Which is a 19th century invented name and concept. So as I wrote - such a name did not exist when the Eastern Roman Empire existed.

My friend, we can't make a serious conversation if you claim things like that...
Among the scientific society and due to the predominance of Greek linguistic, cultural, and demographic elements, this empire is now known by this (let's say nickname), the only purpose of which is to show that the Eastern Roman Empire SOON became a Greek project.



They did, for almost 1500 years.

NO !!!!! Soon after Slavic invation, Byzantium gave an END to Slavic occupation.



It is in my opinion impossible that majority of population of the Eastern Roman Empire were Greeks.

The Byzantinists seem to disagree with you...


Sources;
Ahrweiler & Laiou 1998, p. vii;
Lapidge et al. 1999, p. 79;
Hidryma Meletōn Chersonēsou tou Haimou 1973, p. 331;
Ostrogorsky 1969, pp. 28, 146;
Gross 1999, p. 45;
Davies 1996, p. 135.
 
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