Can a Marxist (or anyone else) name a single instance of foreign rule being experienced as class oppression, rather than national? Keep in mind I'm talking about the population and not the actions or beliefs of the occupiers.
All of them.
But one that immediately came to.mind is India. The royalty in India and the bourgeoisie in India did quite well under British rule until 1947. The nature of inperialism is that it exports capital to extract surplus value. Some of that benefits the national ruling class.
The term for national bourgeoisie who do the bidding for foreign capital is called "comprador."
Can a Marxist (or anyone else) name a single instance of foreign rule being experienced as class oppression, rather than national? Keep in mind I'm talking about the population and not the actions or beliefs of the occupiers.
While the divide between a comprador bourgeoisie and the working class of an oppressed nationality is very real, oppressed nationalities themselves constitute an exploited underclass just as do oppressed genders. This is why we speak of intersections where these different identities amplify or mitigate one another.
The Norman occupation of England following the Battle of Hastings 1066.
So there really is no way to disconfirm Marxism, by its methodology. National oppression just counts as another sort of class oppression!
In the interests of continued discussion, I think the pattern is that intrastate strife produces communist or class revolutionaries, while a struggle with a foreign occupier always manifests itself as nationalism. How many postcolonial countries do you know in which it was communists that threw off imperial rule? And yet almost all of them experienced a rise of revolutionary communism shortly after. I'm not qualified to speculate, but it just seems like it is attractive to countries after the shock of independence, as it provides solidarity and control (which reinforce nationalism rather than curtail it as Marxism predicts).
That seems like a childish response to us saying that you've misconceptualized the issue.
This seems like a strange question. Nothing has ever been "just communists," nor have communists ever said it should be so. A communist party that's doing its job is leading a mass movement composed of a number of elements who all believe they have something to gain from the destruction of the present order. In some cases that's meant nationalists, in others it's meant religious elements, and in others it's meant liberals and anarchists.
It's certainly true that many anti-colonial movements have primarily pursued nation-building projects after independence, while nominally claiming the mantle of socialism, but that doesn't change the fact that their path is objectively anti-imperialist and thus anti-capitalist. The fact that Ghana or Tanzania formed a sort of national bourgeoisie after independence doesn't change the fact that British finance capital was weakened far more by their independence than if either had stayed a colony. A tiny bourgeoisie in the Third World won't save global capitalism when it falls in New York or The City.
Turks over the Armenians and Kurds. Germans over the Polish. Israelis over the Palestinians. Anglo-Saxon Americans over the various indigineous tribes of America. Northern Dutch over the Southern Dutch. Wallonians over the Flemish. Flemish over the Wallonians. Romans over the Gallians. Franks over the Gallians.
Okay, this is your OP. You wrote this, amirite?Can a Marxist (or anyone else) name a single instance of foreign rule being experienced as class oppression, rather than national? Keep in mind I'm talking about the population and not the actions or beliefs of the occupiers.
ALWAYS of a national directive? Seriously? In 1920, 300 million of 350 million Indians didn't even call themselves Indians. You were Bengali, Punjabi, etc.You need to remember what I'm talking about, dude. Sure, you can point to aristocrats revolting or cooperating because how the foreigners affected their finances, but the consciousness on the street was always of a national directive (or just hatred of the occupiers). Case in point: Palestinian territories.
It was both....but did Indian nationalists talk about the dignity and sovereignty of India, Indian culture and religion, the brutality of the British, or did it talk about how the colonials were impoverishing the country and getting rich? It doesn't have to be all one or the other, but I'd wager that the former is by far the predominant theme, and the latter used as a component of it.
And I don't care. It describes the situation.Which I don't find very relevant.
I don't see how those are examples of class oppression (at least, that they were experienced as such). Maybe a concession could be made for the Southern Dutch, however they lived in the same geographical unit and were culturally similar; the same goes for the Flemish and Walloons. The European-American dominance over the natives doesn't count since there was an enormous technological and demographic gap between the two. But Israel's control of the West Bank, the Romans' over Gaul, Germany's over the Poles, these were all viewed as a foreign occupation and responded to accordingly.
I don't know anything about the first and last examples, so explanations would be helpful there.
ALWAYS of a national directive? Seriously? In 1920, 300 million of 350 million Indians didn't even call themselves Indians. You were Bengali, Punjabi, etc.
In the case of India, the Indian Congress Party (of wealthy Indians) directed the mass motion toward hatred of England, while maintaining the caste system and diverting attention from their own class oppression.
Don't get me started on Palestine. The PA and the Israeli government are both screwing over the workers. Those aren't the rich getting tear-gassed in Gaza.
It was both.
If you conceptualize class oppression as also being any other kind of oppression, then it's beyond me how Marxism is falsifiable.
It must be noted though, ISIS and the Nazis both fall under your definition of 'communist party'.
Sure, but if it's the case that imperialism is driven by and maintains capitalism, then I'd like to pose the thread's question to you again. Why does nationalism fuel independence and not class solidarity?
If you conceptualize class oppression as also being any other kind of oppression, then it's beyond me how Marxism is falsifiable.
It's almost like all oppression under capitalism is ultimately rooted in capitalism itself or something, right?
Cheezy, out of curiosity would you consider a communist?
It's almost like all oppression under capitalism is ultimately rooted in capitalism itself or something, right?
I didn't give a definition of a communist party, I gave a list of things that a communist party that's doing its job will be doing.
The answer is in the question. Because the pursuit of independence requires conceptualization of a nation to be independent. The thing is, imperialism is what creates national identity in this case, by grouping the entirety of the oppressed nation together into one single unit: The Colonized. It's the ideological side of imperialism: the crushing of native culture, the introduction of "superior" foreign culture, religion, customs, and the dichotomy between those who own and those who work. Imperialism is always racist, and at least part of the justification for the dominance of the empire is cast in terms of higher and lower races. All that has the effect of making the oppressed nations realize a national solidarity first.
So Mouthwash, what you're asking for is an example of an occupation that benefited the ruling class of the occupied country, or?
Sure, but you are also making it a lot harder for anyone to prove that that is not the case. Countries don't typically occupy another country without some sort of benefit, and at least part of that benefit is presumably found among the ruling class. Who is to say that state power isn't more decisive?
OK, that's fair. Seems dangerous to permit the use of any old ideology in place of socialism, but that's trudging a bit off-topic.
I can't understand why you don't see this as evidence against communism. You believe that capitalism is a global system of oppression, and yet you don't see any reason why it should have been viewed as that by its victims.