Since the Ukraine was a valuable asset for food production, Stalin had to balance utterly wiping the Ukrainians out with wiping out just enough of them to silence the separatist movement. So, in that sense, Lend-Lease prevented a pan-USSR famine.
Why are you even posting this as opposed to trying to refute xchen's arguments? If you aren't convinced by strong points, all the power to you. But that doesn't make your non-responses substantive.
Hm i think i explained that i am discussing not haveing an argument, and that i am here exactly to change and broaden my views.Yes, many people on the internet feel that anyone that "wins" an argument against them is guilty of wasting their time. Afterall, they aren't here to change their worldview, only to reinforce it. Who needs to cite evidence or bother looking at evidence contradicting them for that?
As i said i am not a profetinal historian and i this is nor a profetional historian forum, so i don't see where is the problem.
This isn't a professional forum. So? That doesn't make you right by default when you refuse to respond to legitimate points.
Except that nobody has yet provided any evidence that famine in Ukraine was purposedly created by Soviet government to genocide Ukrainians.This wasn't just callous indifference on Stalin's part but an intentional act of genocide: "Famine in Ukraine was brought on to decrease the number of Ukrainians, replace the dead with people from other parts of the USSR, and thereby to kill the slightest thought of any Ukrainian independence." Source: V. Danilov, et al., Sovetskaia derevnia glazami OGPU NKVD. T. 3, kn.2. (Moscow, 2004), pg.572.
Except that nobody has yet provided any evidence that famine in Ukraine was purposedly created by Soviet government to genocide Ukrainians.
1. Famines in Russia due to bad crops happened pretty regularly before 1932, and during Soviet period they were actually stopped.
2. Ukraine was not the most suffered region of the USSR, neither in absolute nor in relative terms. Majority of starved people were of Russian ethnicity, and proportionally the most affected by famines region was Kazakhstan.
3. There was no significant separatist movement in Ukraine in 1932
This is not an evidence, this is opinion of V. Danilov.I have, actually. Let me repost it: "Famine in Ukraine was brought on to decrease the number of Ukrainians, replace the dead with people from other parts of the USSR, and thereby to kill the slightest thought of any Ukrainian independence."
Source: V. Danilov, et al., Sovetskaia derevnia glazami OGPU NKVD. T. 3, kn.2. (Moscow, 2004), pg.572.
The only problem is that agricultural system, reformed in Soviet period became much more efficient than it was before industrialization - when famines were happening regularly despite the country's population consisted of >90% of peasants.They were stopped because Stalin massacred enough people in the gulags and famines that the worthless maximum threshold of the agricultural system established by the Soviets finally matched the population for a brief period of time.
This is not my point, these are your fantasies:You know, you make a really good point: one of the most murderous and oppressive states in the history of mankind can't be that bad because the ten million people it purposefully starved to death in the Ukraine from 1932-33 (and 1946-47 to a lesser extent) wasn't that bad compared to its other crimes against humanity.
How this contradicts with my statement?"At the 12th Congress of the Communist Party of Ukraine, Moscow-appointed leader Pavel Postyshev declared that '1933 was the year of the defeat of Ukrainian nationalist counter-revolution.'" Source: Stenograph Record, Kharkiv 1934.
At least horse can be used for transporting grain, or they are not even fit for that ?
Heh, you're reminding me of the Schweinemord.It's fairly expensive in terms of grain to transport grain by something that eats it in large amounts....
Heh, you're reminding me of the Schweinemord.
Except that a few of us, myself included, happen to be professional (or at least qualified) historians. Several of the others are studying at university to become one themselves.As i said i am not a profetinal historian and i this is nor a profetional historian forum, so i don't see where is the problem.
To everyone who noted my statistical errors regarding population earlier, it's due to a misprint in my source. The page I was reading stated it possessed figures on "German population and industrial capacity in 1939-40," when it actually should read "1949-50." That's what I get for reading West German history books, I guess. It doesn't change the fact that Britain outproduced Germany, it just changes the exact amount.
Except that a few of us, myself included, happen to be professional (or at least qualified) historians. Several of the others are studying at university to become one themselves.
Your earlier statements reveal that you completely ignore the evidence presented to you in favour of sticking your head in the clouds and lamely mumbling something about how maybe Germany (or later, Russia) could have done things differently if everything in the lead-up was different. The fact is, Hitler's goals from before he even became Chancellor essentially forced all the issues that led to the Second World War. Hitler's attempts to force the issue in favour of his warped views of international politics almost led to war between Germany and Italy as early as 1934, when Hitler supported an attempted coup in Austria by the Austrian Nazi Party. He almost started a war over Czechoslovakia in 1938, and again in early-1939. It is difficult to believe that anything short of Hitler not being in power could have changed German economic and industrial policy, nor could any changes made have improved the German military to the point where it could compete with the UK, USSR, US or even France. Germany's economy was simply that much weaker than its competitors. Even Italy's economy and industry was stronger, though Mussolini did a fantastic job of screwing that up.
Hitler was never going to fundamentally change the entire industrial output of Germany at a whim, even if it were possible, which it's not. The real world isn't a game of Civ. You can't just decide halfway through building a tank that you need a bomber instead, and switch over the shields. Germany could not completely restructure its industry or economy, even if they'd possessed some sort of long-term strategy other than:
1. Start wars in the East.
2. ?
3. Kill all the Jews and gain lebensraum.
If you are going to discuss things on an historical forum, then perhaps you should actually investigate the topic you're talking about, instead of just naively believing things that all the evidence suggests is wrong. Otherwise, you're going to get chewed out a lot.
To everyone who noted my statistical errors regarding population earlier, it's due to a misprint in my source. The page I was reading stated it possessed figures on "German population and industrial capacity in 1939-40," when it actually should read "1949-50." That's what I get for reading West German history books, I guess. It doesn't change the fact that Britain outproduced Germany, it just changes the exact amount.
That's what I looked at to correct myself. My original source was a chapter in an old text-book I 'aquired' from high school. I've decided it's utterly hopeless just in the short time I've been reading this thread. The book in question is "History of the German State: 1861 to Present," Philip Jurgens, that present being 1972. A google search didn't even reveal the damn author's name, let alone the book.Can you provide your source? This is what I've been looking at:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Military_production_during_World_War_II
I know, I know, its Wikipedia, but it looks good to me.
Wiki is actually pretty good for basic statistics, dates, etc.. Where it fails is whenever something is even remotely controversial, ie., Stalin's complicity in the Holodomor, the truth behind war crimes, etc.. But it's hard to argue with simple facts like "x amount of tanks were produced by y date, then they were sent to z." Not that you won't still occasionally come across a page that does exactly that, but it's fairly rare. The real usefulness behind Wiki is reading the pages, then checking the sources Wiki provides to determine their worth. A Wiki page is only as good as who is writing it, and they sources they use.I want to ask you (as you are professional historian) how reliable is the data provided in wiki regarding historical issues according to you ? (please don't understand me wrong, it is not conected with the previous discussion, but it seems that according your source(guess a serious one) Britain outproduced Germany, and as mentioned above the wiki says the opposite). And i think that for many people who have history just as a hobby or are simply interested in some issues conected with it use wiki as a primary and most accessable source. So how reliable is it ? Not only for ww2 data, but in general for historical issues.(may be it should be in different topic...)