An Evaluative Essay on Mark Elvin's "High Level Equilibrium Trap" - Chinese Economy

Teeninvestor said:
Oh wow....
Please actually read some Chinese history before you begin.
First, start off with the Economy of the Song dynasty article on wikipedia.
No increase in per capita wealth in 2000 years???? utter BS.....

It isn't my opinion, it comes from a well regarded study, conducted by a well regarded economics historian, who is routinely cited by academic sources and who has had the grace to provide results study free through the World Bank. I'm sorry, I'll take Maddison, over any Wikipedia article.

In addition, you have systematically failed to understand what a High Level Equilibrium Trap is. Before you can comment on an essay that's central premise concerns the existence of a High Level Equilibrium Trap you must first understand what it is. I have provide a link to give you a simplified understanding of the model, from your very own Wikipedia, which you have obviously not read - it is only 500 words approximately.

Once you understand the model then you will understand why 2000 years of stagnation is well within the realms of possibility. However, I will give you a chance to redeem your intellectual credibility.

Example:

World per capita GDP growth since the birth of Christ could not possibly have been as high as, say, 0.5%; it it were, per capita GDP would have grown from $400 in current dollars to over $8.6 million by the year 2000! We can be certain, then that, for most of this period, growth was indeed close to zero.

Putting it another way, even the most wildly optimistic estimates suggest no more than a doubling or tripling of global per capita between the year 1 and AD 1000.


1 Dollar=1990 International Geary-Khamis dollars (look up what these are before you comment on where the $400 figure came from).

Teeninvestor said:
And you haven't still addressed my issues with stagnation. Economies won't stagnate on their own; they will only stagnate when they are a) technologically stagnant(no innovations) b) outcompeted or in a state of political turmoil, c) stifling of developments of capital(for example, Qing taking over the salt & iron industries.

Irrelevant, you do not understand that capital markets, technological innovation, private enterprise et al are not preconditions of an increase in GDP per capita, nor are they preconditions of an increase in GDP in a pre-industrial society. Re: High Level Equilibrium Trap.

Teeninvestor said:
No rise in per capita income? check this:

The Song government encouraged people to reclaim barren lands and put them under cultivation. Anyone who opened up new lands and paid taxes were granted permanent possession of the new land. Under this policy, the cultivated land in the Song Dynasty is estimated to have reached a peak number of 720 million mu, and was not surpassed by later Ming and Qing Dynasties

Explain your logic. How does that create an increase in per capita GDP? The only people going to take over barren land are the landless rural poor. The very word barren land really gives away the game, it may have lead to increase in acreage, but not an increase in GDP per capita. Re: High Level Equilibrium Trap.

Teeninvestor said:
Emergence of specialized, market agriculture is a far cry from the self-sufficient peasants of the Han and Tang Era.
From agriculture alone we can see that technologically wise, this was an era of gigantic growth.

Yet again you do not understand what an increase in specialization means in a society under the effects of a High Level Equilibrium Trap

Teeninvestor said:
And what's next? arguing the Song and Ming, which are one of China's most innovative eras and generally considered to be high points of Chinese civilization, who invented gunpowder, printing press, and compass, as well as sending huge fleets around the world, were "technologically stagnant". That belongs in the humor & jokes section.

You fail to understand what technological improvements mean in a pre-industrial economy. Re: High Level Equilibrium Trap.

Teeninvestor said:
Also, GDP per capita figures(for ancient times) are notoriously unreliable.

Granted. However China has by far the best historical sources for such calculations. I will also note that statistically the error margin is within acceptable tolerances for historical economics, and is far more reliable than any descriptive work by a historian.

*

I also refer you to this
. And wish to inform you, that had you been in a class of mine and spouted disingenuous arguments, backed up with spurious logic, based on Wikipedia articles, with such an obvious poor grasp of economics theory I would have failed you on the spot.

Furthermore, before you comment again on pre-industrial societies economics, you need to understand that you might as well throw out any economic preconditions you have learned in school or university, because they will not be applicable.

If you honestly want to learn, then I'm happy to help and direct you to proper sources which are not Wikipedia. I'm also happy to take the time to explain concepts and the kind of thought processes which are required to arrive at meaningful conclusions which adhere to logic and economic principles.
 
I quite honestly find it hilarious that Teeninvestor sidetracks into topics that have little to do with the original topic and essay, and instead delve into minor side issues or issues that weren't even mentioned in the original source material, and then call people as "off-topic".
 
Explain your logic. How does that create an increase in per capita GDP? The only people going to take over barren land are the landless rural poor. The very word barren land really gives away the game, it may have lead to increase in acreage, but not an increase in GDP per capita. Re

How could you ignore the fact I posted? The whole point of this essay was that the economy expanded quantitatively but not qualitatively.

The Song dynasty had 720 million Mu under cultivation. This figure was not exceeded under the Ming and Qing dynasties

From that figure, we can see
Song dynasty - 720 million Mu, 100 million
Ming dynasty- 720 million Mu, 180 million

That just destroyed the whole point of the essay. With the amount of land staying the same & population increasing, the economic growth is coming from better cultivation techniques, which would be a "qualitative" expansion.

And you call wikipedia bad? I bet wikipedia's writers are 100 times better than you in terms of knowledge about China(and many other subjects). I can say with confidence that the editors of wikipedia are much more knowledged than you guys. I challenge you to produce a featured article on wikipedia. Please, ACTUALLY LEARN something about China before you post this stuff on. Thinking you know something you don't is the worst type of thinking. Geez.

He cites two principle factors that led to this state of affairs. Firstly, that because the non-mechanized processes in agriculture and industry in China were so well developed and efficient they out-competed early mechanized processes, thus making capital investment in mechanization unprofitable. He also goes on to explain that China's massive size allowed its population to simply migrate to a new region instead of forcing them to develop more efficient mechanized processes when resources became scarce, such as occurred in Europe.

In his analysis of figure 1 Elvin makes several simplifying
assumptions: most importantly, he assumes that the total cultivated land area
is fixed and that the types of techniques available for cultivation are fixed and
unchanging.

Yes I do know the "reasoning" behnd this. However, studies have shown that the steam engine and other industrial processes would have outcompeted Chinese non-mechanized processes, which discredit the theory. Also, this theory relies on cultivation techniques "standing still" which was definitely not the case.

In addition, this theory rests on Chinese economy supposedly only growing "enough to keep up with population growth." However, this is misfounded as Economy of the Ming demonstrated; there was a gigantic surplus of grain created during the Ming, despite an 60 to 80% increase in population.
In fact, this surplus was so huge, that whole areas could be dedicated to specialized crops, as other areas could plant grain(which would be enough to supply the whole country). This was unheard of in all earlier countries, as usually most of the land had to be used in all areas to produce grain.

So please, before you make accusations and try to use big words to confuse people, please ACTUALLY DO SOME RESEARCH. THANK YOU. It is a sad day when these discredited dinosaur theories are actually treated seriously by unknowing people....

Also, what about your much vaunted Europe, where technology soared? You're gonna have a hard time proving Ming China's growth rate was slower than Europe during the same period, or during the 1700's(don't even try the Song period).

And wish to inform you, that had you been in a class of mine and spouted disingenuous arguments, backed up with spurious logic, based on Wikipedia articles, with such an obvious poor grasp of economics theory I would have failed you on the spot.

And any credible professor would fail you(if you are a student)on the spot if you use theories that have long been discredited, as well as ignoring CERTAIN FACTS that discredit your whole theory. I can use hypotheticals too, eh? And yes, any one can pretend to be a professor. It doesn't add credibility to the debate until they can come up with FACTS.

Granted. However China has by far the best historical sources for such calculations. I will also note that statistically the error margin is within acceptable tolerances for historical economics, and is far more reliable than any descriptive work by a historian.

Once you understand the model then you will understand why 2000 years of stagnation is well within the realms of possibility. However, I will give you a chance to redeem your intellectual credibility.

Not when they are flat-out contradicted by economic observations(e.g. Huge surplus in Ming, grain market).

And any academic who thinks the level of technology and economic growth was standstill from Han to Qing should resign and never engage in history again....
Seriously- Check: List of Chinese Inventions on wikipedia. Yes, I'm sure that the new merchant activity in Tang and Song, investing in large voyages, is standstill. The surplus of the Ming was standstill; The fact a gigantic overseas trade of 300 million taels developed added nothing; The invention of paper, numerous agricultural techniques are standstill, didn't change anything.

And your criticism of wikipedia shows me that this project is still massively misunderstood. Go, check a featured article on wikipedia. One I just found had 200 citations and up to 30 academic sources. Do you know how long that would take to create on a guy's spare time?

If anything, you need a chance to redeem your credibility. Your utter ignorance of several key facts about China's economic development, your use of outdated, discredited theories, and your strange, prejudiced misperceptions of "2000 years' stagnation" and other things dashes your credibility to the ground.

It isn't my opinion, it comes from a well regarded study, conducted by a well regarded economics historian, who is routinely cited by academic sources and who has had the grace to provide results study free through the World Bank. I'm sorry, I'll take Maddison, over any Wikipedia article.

When contradicted by economic observations, per above, Any result must be challenged. Even Galileo said "Question all authority". And I suppose if the world bank released a figure the US GDP grew 10% in Q1, you'd believe it as well?

In addition, you have systematically failed to understand what a High Level Equilibrium Trap is. Before you can comment on an essay that's central premise concerns the existence of a High Level Equilibrium Trap you must first understand what it is. I have provide a link to give you a simplified understanding of the model, from your very own Wikipedia, which you have obviously not read - it is only 500 words approximately.

Irrelevant; per above, I have shown that cultivation techniques and others were definitely not stagnant.

Irrelevant, you do not understand that capital markets, technological innovation, private enterprise et al are not preconditions of an increase in GDP per capita, nor are they preconditions of an increase in GDP in a pre-industrial society. Re: High Level Equilibrium Trap.

Uh huh. New overseas markets for trade, a gigantic jump in agricultural productivity, a gigantic influx of silver, constant increase in productivity and whole new industries, does not result in increase of GDP per capita. That makes so much sense.

Where you accuse me of not understanding what a high equilibrium trap is, you have failed to understand the VERY BASICS of a preindustrial economy. Also, 0.5% growth, while small, is not "Stagnation" in any sense.

Yes, and your references to the discredited Malthus strengthens your argument so much. HAVE YOU EVER CONSIDER THAT TECHNOLOGY IMPROVES AND INCREASED PRODUCTIVITY IS THE RESULT.As long as productivity is increasing(as it is most of the time), the Malthusian model is absolutely worthless. That happened during the whole time in Han, Tang, Song and Ming; productivity kept on increasing. If you want to dispute that, check "List of Chinese inventions", "Economy of the Song dynasty", or just read the history of China(which I doubt you have).

ANd that's the problem with a lot of people. They don't know jack about the subject, but they then rush in to comment to defend their own orthodoxy and prejudices.

For example, on the subject of "preindustrial economies". Would you say Ancient Greece and Song were on same plane of development, roughly? Would you say that Ming was the same as the Romans on the same plane of development? Of course not. Just like any other economy, preindustrial economies(especially ones like Post-Song China and Renaissance Europe) are subject to basic rules.
More productivity, more growth. More technological change, more productivity. I would encourage you to actually study this area before proceeding to comment.

Also, I think Maddison's credibility is destroyed by the fact he thought India had a higher GDP than the Song in 1000, at a time when India is in the middle of centuries of devastating warfare(which affects all economies, modern or premodern) and probably has half the population of the Song, not to mention a lower technological level.

Bryan Haig, who has characterized Maddison's figures for 19th century Australia as "inaccurate and irrelevant"[1], by John Caldwell, in whose assessment Maddison's arguments have a "dangerous circularity"[2], by W. W. Rostow, according to whom, "This excessive macroeconomic bias also causes him (Maddison) to mis-date, in my view, the beginning of what he calls the capitalist era at 1820 rather than, say, the mid-1780s[3], and by W. J. MacPherson who has described Maddison's work on India and Pakistan of using "dubious comparative data."[4]
 
And you call wikipedia bad? I bet wikipedia's writers are 100 times better than you in terms of knowledge about China. I can say with confidence that the editors of wikipedia are much more knowledged than you guys. Could you produce economy of the SOng dynasty? Please, ACTUALLY LEARN something about China before you post this stuff on. Thinking you know something you don't is the worst type of thinking. Geez.

Hey am Wikipedia writer, guess I know everything on this subject now.
 
Can someone else be bothered to say why Teeninvestor's long post is not valid?
Hint: Logical fallacies.
Second hint: Amongst our weaponry are such diverse elements as the straw man, ad nauseam and ad hominem
 
Can someone else be bothered to say why Teeninvestor's long post is not valid?
Hint: Logical fallacies.
Second hint: Amongst our weaponry are such diverse elements as the straw man, ad nauseam and ad hominem

Third hint: Everyone is a Wikipedia writer
 
How could you ignore the fact I posted? The whole point of this essay was that the economy expanded quantitatively but not qualitatively.

[...]

That just destroyed the whole point of the essay. With the amount of land staying the same & population increasing, the economic growth is coming from better cultivation techniques, which would be a "qualitative" expansion.[...]

You misrepresent BananLee. I quote from his essay: "[...] it would be inaccurate to call the entire Ming-Qing period one of economic standstill. Heading towards stagnation is not the same as being there. The specialisation of crops and development of a thriving petty production industry would have doubtlessly improved the lot of the peasant family. Only when the land ran out after 1750 did problems start to rise for the still-increasing population. The term ‘quantitative growth, qualitative standstill’ would therefore only be accurate for a small sliver of the 1368-1799 period."
char[] = new char[10]
 
Masada said:
According to Maddison there was no significant increase in Chinese per capita wealth. One can infer that gains in technology are rapidly eaten away by gains in population and so on. The average lot of the peasant was not therefore improved, innovation, technical prowess, industry and all the contingent factors of the Ming were therefore irrelevant for an absolute majority of the population.

Teeninvestor said:
No rise in per capita income? check this:

Teeninvestor said:
The Song government encouraged people to reclaim barren lands and put them under cultivation. Anyone who opened up new lands and paid taxes were granted permanent possession of the new land. Under this policy, the cultivated land in the Song Dynasty is estimated to have reached a peak number of 720 million mu, and was not surpassed by later Ming and Qing Dynasties

Masada said:
Explain your logic. How does that create an increase in per capita GDP? The only people going to take over barren land are the landless rural poor. The very word barren land really gives away the game, it may have lead to increase in acreage, but not an increase in GDP per capita. Re

Teeninvestor said:
How could you ignore the fact I posted? The whole point of this essay was that the economy expanded quantitatively but not qualitatively.

Teeninvestor resented a claim I made about a stagnation of GDP per capita and then quoted a passage about an increase in farmed barren land. I replied that, that did not necessarily show an increase in per capita GDP but an increase in acreage. To which he replied that I ignored 'the fact I posted' which I hadn't, I had merely stated that it was it did not necessarily lead to an increase qualitatively. He then claimed that this was no the purpose of the essay, which I grant, but if indeed it was not why then did he reply to it in the first place? In the context of the discussion it was both appropriate and pertinent for showing stagnation, which is best represented by GDP per capita figures. I did grant in the same post that real GDP overall had increased but claimed that it was matched by an increase in population white ate away any gains in per capita income something born out of data I produced.

Teeninvestor said:
That just destroyed the whole point of the essay. With the amount of land staying the same & population increasing, the economic growth is coming from better cultivation techniques, which would be a "qualitative" expansion.

I refer the reader to Flying Chickens post above my own for why Teeninvestor in engaging in misrepresentation.

Teeninvestor said:
And any credible professor would fail you(if you are a student)on the spot if you use theories that have long been discredited, as well as ignoring CERTAIN FACTS that discredit your whole theory. I can use hypotheticals too, eh? And yes, any one can pretend to be a professor. It doesn't add credibility to the debate until they can come up with FACTS.

Refer me to these 'discredited theories' please. If Neo-Malthusian Models and High Level Equilibrium Traps are what you are referring to they are not discredited. They are not even heterodox economics in economic history or cliometrics anymore. In reference to your need for facts, I have posted data which backs up my assertion. Your 'facts' are no use to an economic analysis... being descriptive and all.

Teeninvestor said:
Not when they are flat-out contradicted by economic observations(e.g. Huge surplus in Ming, grain market).

And any academic who thinks the level of technology and economic growth was standstill from Han to Qing should resign and never engage in history again....
Seriously- Check: List of Chinese Inventions on wikipedia. Yes, I'm sure that the new merchant activity in Tang and Song, investing in large voyages, is standstill. The surplus of the Ming was standstill; The fact a gigantic overseas trade of 300 million taels developed added nothing; The invention of paper, numerous agricultural techniques are standstill, didn't change anything.

Technological growth =/ economic growth, mercantile economic activity =/ economic growth, long voyages =/ economic growth, 300 million tael trade (turnover) =/ economic growth.

Just because you have all of the above doesn't mean that it is necessarily going to lead to an increase in economic growth again because they are descriptive. They certainly indicate growth, but what magnitude of growth I can't tell from just looking at 'this happened'. I also refer you to the general definition of stagnation which is rather I don't know interesting? I also refer you to my earlier post which pointed out that growth could not have been higher than 1% for any extended period in history ($5 million International Geary-Khamis dollars and all) it is therefore possible with some simple math to infer that it was indeed close to 0%.

Teeninvestor said:
If anything, you need a chance to redeem your credibility. Your utter ignorance of several key facts about China's economic development, your use of outdated, discredited theories, and your strange, prejudiced misconceptions of "2000 years' stagnation" and other things dashes your credibility to the ground.

You haven't refuted Maddison, my argument stands in-spite of your descriptive facts and snide attacks. Your yet to show me anything as an economist that would be useful to make an informed decision. My 'outdated, discredited theories, and... strange, prejudiced misconceptions "2000 years' stagnation" and other things dashes [my] credibility to the ground" apparently, but again my theories are orthodox economics in economic history and cliometrics, my 'misconceptions' are backed up by a wealth of economic evidence including some of which I have cited (re: Maddison) and I also hold exactly the same beliefs for the rest of the world bar the occasional ephemeral efflorescence of growth which if you had cared to ask me includes more periods in China than anywhere else including Europe. You also seem to get the idea that I'm hating on China, far from it, I'm not European, nor am I a euro-centrist, if anything I'm an economic Asiaphile, I just can't abide ignorance, nationalism (?) or someone who manages to misrepresent someone from the first post.

Teeninvestor said:
When contradicted by economic observations, per above, Any result must be challenged. Even Galileo said "Question all authority". And I suppose if the world bank released a figure the US GDP grew 10% in Q1, you'd believe it as well?

You seem to mistakes your 'facts' as economic observations, they are not, they are descriptive and don't have sufficient detail for me or anyone else to make anything useful out of them. It's not like your saying, "grain production increased from 60 million bushels to 90 million bushels, with a population which grew at a rate slower than the growth of grain production for the 25 year period. This indicates that per capita consumption increased by [whatever]" to which I can reply, "Indeed you've made a case for per capita consumption, this might indeed show an increase in per capita GDP! [again it might not, that might be inefficiently produced grain on barren land with workers who might be more gainfully employed elsewhere]." Instead I'm getting "paper" which I'm meant to infer increased economic growth... based on what? "Or a trade of 300 million taels" which I admit sounds better (and it tees with figures I have) but that is not an economic fact per say, its merely descriptive of the trade, if you provided something like "A trade of 300 million taels which grew from a trade of 100 million taels only 50 years earlier and which assisted in the growth of key industries like silk and led to an inflow of silver which expanded the money supply and helped stimulate demand and assisted in further monetizing the economy" I might be able to comment [those figures were drawn from memory, but they are about right, however they do not of themselves show an increase in economic growth].

Teeninvestor said:
Irrelevant; per above, I have shown that cultivation techniques and others were definitely not stagnant.

Half the story again, did the population increase a rate proportional to the increase of population?

Teeninvestor said:
Uh huh. New overseas markets for trade, a gigantic jump in agricultural productivity, a gigantic influx of silver, constant increase in productivity and whole new industries, does not result in increase of GDP per capita. That makes so much sense.

Refer to above, but that's more like economics argumentation.

Teeninvestor said:
Where you accuse me of not understanding what a high equilibrium trap is, you have failed to understand the VERY BASICS of a preindustrial economy. Also, 0.5% growth, while small, is not "Stagnation" in any sense.

0.5% growth was a figure I made up in an example.

Teenivestor said:
Yes, and your references to the discredited Malthus strengthens your argument so much. HAVE YOU EVER CONSIDER THAT TECHNOLOGY IMPROVES AND INCREASED PRODUCTIVITY IS THE RESULT.As long as productivity is increasing(as it is most of the time), the Malthusian model is absolutely worthless. That happened during the whole time in Han, Tang, Song and Ming; productivity kept on increasing. If you want to dispute that, check "List of Chinese inventions", "Economy of the Song dynasty", or just read the history of China(which I doubt you have).

Again, I said "like" this, a High Level Equilibrium Trap is significantly more advanced than the old Malthusian models. In any case Mathlus was not fully discredited (he has only been discredited during the period of the industrial revolution and after). I'm aware of that, has diminishing returns ever occurred to you? Or technological growth being eaten up by an increase in population? Partially correct as to your second assertion (been reading Wikipedia I gather!), technological growth indeed might outstrip population growth, but seldom for long periods, Re: the occasional ephemeral efflorescence of growth mentioned above. However, you don't account for the other side of the equation, diminishing returns and increases in population. In any case this is closer to economic argument.

Teenivestor said:
ANd that's the problem with a lot of people. They don't know jack about the subject, but they then rush in to comment to defend their own orthodoxy and prejudices.

What Orthodoxy and prejudices? You can form an accurate picture of what I regard as economic Orthodox and what my prejudices are after this?

Teenivestor said:
For example, on the subject of "preindustrial economies". Would you say Ancient Greece and Song were on same plane of development, roughly? Would you say that Ming was the same as the Romans on the same plane of development? Of course not. Just like any other economy, preindustrial economies(especially ones like Post-Song China and Renaissance Europe) are subject to basic rules.

You have hit the nail on the head! Now the question is, what was the average lot of the population like, and what was the gap in years between the two. Now compare it to the last say 20 years for China and the last 150 for the West and you will see the massive increase in both GDP and per capita GDP growth!

Now please tell me what these basic rules are... because I honestly don't think you know given that you quoted the following causes for stagnation

Teenivestor said:
they will only stagnate when they are a) technologically stagnant(no innovations) b) outcompeted or in a state of political turmoil, c) stifling of developments of capital(for example, Qing taking over the salt & iron industries.

Which don't really matter all that much.

Teenivestor said:
More productivity, more growth. More technological change, more productivity. I would encourage you to actually study this area before proceeding to comment.

Population, diminishing returns... look I can make a catalog to!

Teeninvestor said:
Also, I think Maddison's credibility is destroyed by the fact he thought India had a higher GDP than the Song in 1000, at a time when India is in the middle of centuries of devastating warfare(which affects all economies, modern or premodern) and probably has half the population of the Song, not to mention a lower technological level.

Well, 1000AD according to Maddison

India: 75 million people
China: 50 million people

A note is attached for India, "These estimates refer to the combined economy of the various states located in the regions now corresponding to the Republic of India, Pakistan and Bangladesh." at a guess the population is included.

India: 33,750million 1990 International Geary-Khamis dollars
China: 27,494 million 1990 International Geary-Khamis dollars

That is from the start of the century, according to R. Findlay and K. Rourke (2007) from the 50 million or so it had been at the height of the Tang in 750 (which was less than the 63 million estimated for the year 200), to well over 100 million by the twelfth century (McEvedy and Jones 1978, p. 167; Maddison 1998, p. 169). As Mark Elvin (1973) pointed out, this can be seen as the operation of a classical Malthusian-type model, with population growth eventually wiping out gains in productivity. The last bit was to show that Elvin is far from obscure.

I don't have figures other than Maddison for India's population at a 1000AD. And I don't have access to JSTOR at this present moment. Although I'm lead to believe that your assertion that the Sung dynasties population was indeed double is looking shaky, 200 years later certainly.

Wikipedia said:
Bryan Haig, who has characterized Maddison's figures for 19th century Australia as "inaccurate and irrelevant"[1], by John Caldwell, in whose assessment Maddison's arguments have a "dangerous circularity"[2], by W. W. Rostow, according to whom, "This excessive macroeconomic bias also causes him (Maddison) to mis-date, in my view, the beginning of what he calls the capitalist era at 1820 rather than, say, the mid-1780s[3], and by W. J. MacPherson who has described Maddison's work on India and Pakistan of using "dubious comparative data."[4]

I can't check Haigs figures or the basis of his argument, but Australian GDP was historically until the advent of the ABS very difficult to check. Nor can I check if the context is correct.

Caldwell has some meaty criticism, but I don't full access to JSTOR beyond the first page.

As to Rostow he invented the take-off model, and his '1820 instead of mid 1780's argument' is fairly well known. If you are aware of the Dating of the Industrial Revolution debate, your aware that the precise start of it is highly variable, that isn't the issue the issue is the accuracy of his figures.

I can't comment on MacPherson but it doesn't look like he attacks the veracity of the data or that, that is the central crux of his argument, I don't have access to JSTOR beyond the first page.
 
Teeninvestor said:
And your criticism of wikipedia shows me that this project is still massively misunderstood. Go, check a featured article on wikipedia. One I just found had 200 citations and up to 30 academic sources. Do you know how long that would take to create on a guy's spare time?
Have you every played the "source" game where a teacher gives one person from the class a message, then has it passed on around until it gets back to the teacher? Have you ever taken a college course. maybe on English or History or Journalism, on research and what constitutes a reliable source? A tertiary source like Wikipedia may be credited for information, but its sources need to be examined. Discrepancies between secondary/primary sources and the tertiary ones pop up from time to time... but that's not my main concern anyway so what am I saying?

My only concern here is your continual misrepresentation of the essay.
 
You seem to mistakes your 'facts' as economic observations, they are not, they are descriptive and don't have sufficient detail for me or anyone else to make anything useful out of them. It's not like your saying, "grain production increased from 60 million bushels to 90 million bushels, with a population which grew at a rate slower than the growth of grain production for the 25 year period. This indicates that per capita consumption increased by [whatever]" to which I can reply, "Indeed you've made a case for per capita consumption, this might indeed show an increase in per capita GDP! [again it might not, that might be inefficiently produced grain on barren land with workers who might be more gainfully employed elsewhere]." Instead I'm getting "paper" which I'm meant to infer increased economic growth... based on what? "Or a trade of 300 million taels" which I admit sounds better (and it tees with figures I have) but that is not an economic fact per say, its merely descriptive of the trade, if you provided something like "A trade of 300 million taels which grew from a trade of 100 million taels only 50 years earlier and which assisted in the growth of key industries like silk and led to an inflow of silver which expanded the money supply and helped stimulate demand and assisted in further monetizing the economy" I might be able to comment [those figures were drawn from memory, but they are about right, however they do not of themselves show an increase in economic growth].

SO are you saying that technology doesn't cause ECONOMIC GROWTH. THEN WHAT WAS THE INDUSTRIAL REVOLUTION.

These things will obviously help stimulate the economy because they cause MORE ECONOMIC ACITIVTY. That causes growth.

Well, 1000AD according to Maddison

India: 75 million people
China: 50 million people

A note is attached for India, "These estimates refer to the combined economy of the various states located in the regions now corresponding to the Republic of India, Pakistan and Bangladesh." at a guess the population is included.

India: 33,750million 1990 International Geary-Khamis dollars
China: 27,494 million 1990 International Geary-Khamis dollars

That is from the start of the century, according to R. Findlay and K. Rourke (2007) from the 50 million or so it had been at the height of the Tang in 750 (which was less than the 63 million estimated for the year 200), to well over 100 million by the twelfth century (McEvedy and Jones 1978, p. 167; Maddison 1998, p. 169). As Mark Elvin (1973) pointed out, this can be seen as the operation of a classical Malthusian-type model, with population growth eventually wiping out gains in productivity. The last bit was to show that Elvin is far from obscure.

I don't have figures other than Maddison for India's population at a 1000AD. And I don't have access to JSTOR at this present moment. Although I'm lead to believe that your assertion that the Sung dynasties population was indeed double is looking shaky, 200 years later certainly.

It's been proven academically Song population is about 100 million. This is not only on wikipedia, but also on other encyclopedias. Tang population was already about 60 million, you know. Ina ddition, I doubt the cultivated land in India was anywhere near the 720 million Mu during the Song.

Again, I said "like" this, a High Level Equilibrium Trap is significantly more advanced than the old Malthusian models. In any case Mathlus was not fully discredited (he has only been discredited during the period of the industrial revolution and after). I'm aware of that, has diminishing returns ever occurred to you? Or technological growth being eaten up by an increase in population? Partially correct as to your second assertion (been reading Wikipedia I gather!), technological growth indeed might outstrip population growth, but seldom for long periods, Re: the occasional ephemeral efflorescence of growth mentioned above. However, you don't account for the other side of the equation, diminishing returns and increases in population. In any case this is closer to economic argument

I have already cited Growth in Ming and Song agricultural production far exceeded Population growth. In fact, a check of any Chinese history can show that agricultural production OUTPACED the population growth, in almost any dynasty. That is why specialized agriculture popped up during Ming; enough grain was being produced that whole provinces devoted themselves to other crops.

Technological growth =/ economic growth, mercantile economic activity =/ economic growth, long voyages =/ economic growth, 300 million tael trade (turnover) =/ economic growth.

Just because you have all of the above doesn't mean that it is necessarily going to lead to an increase in economic growth again because they are descriptive. They certainly indicate growth, but what magnitude of growth I can't tell from just looking at 'this happened'. I also refer you to the general definition of stagnation which is rather I don't know interesting? I also refer you to my earlier post which pointed out that growth could not have been higher than 1% for any extended period in history ($5 million International Geary-Khamis dollars and all) it is therefore possible with some simple math to infer that it was indeed close to 0%.

Growth is an increase in economic activity. As long as economic activiity is increasing due to higher productivity, the economy is technically growing. The nature of preindustrial economies prohibit extremely higher growth(due to less returns on investment). And I'm sure you won't argue that the above do not increase economic activity?

Teeninvestor resented a claim I made about a stagnation of GDP per capita and then quoted a passage about an increase in farmed barren land. I replied that, that did not necessarily show an increase in per capita GDP but an increase in acreage. To which he replied that I ignored 'the fact I posted' which I hadn't, I had merely stated that it was it did not necessarily lead to an increase qualitatively. He then claimed that this was no the purpose of the essay, which I grant, but if indeed it was not why then did he reply to it in the first place? In the context of the discussion it was both appropriate and pertinent for showing stagnation, which is best represented by GDP per capita figures. I did grant in the same post that real GDP overall had increased but claimed that it was matched by an increase in population white ate away any gains in per capita income something born out of data I produced.

Note.
The ploughland was the same, yet a greater population could be fed. That destroys the main theme of the essay, which is that Chinese economic productivity did not increase; there was merely an increase in the ploughland. This fact that the ploughland stayed constant through all the dyansties show that it was the opposite that happened; the ploughland was the same, agricultural producitvity increased(except during Qing).
 
My sources are academic and reputable peer-approved sources. They have from multiple sources as listed in the bibliography of my essay - and some of the accepted facts are covered by several of them at once.

You have only cited Wikipedia - and whatever source they cite. Again, please do not waste space by your non-contribution and straw man fallacies.

EDIT: Because I do not associate with... how shall I put it politely.. idiots, I have added Teeninvestor to my ignore list. He has been given ample opportunity to counter my arguments - mostly about his use of Wikipedia as his only source. Therefore, I have concluded he follows the principle of argumentum ad nauseam.
A final word of advice; if you repeat something often enough, it doesn't always become the truth.
Good day.

Moderator Action: Infraction for flaming. - KD
Please read the forum rules: http://forums.civfanatics.com/showthread.php?t=422889
 
Teeninvestor said:
SO are you saying that technology doesn't cause ECONOMIC GROWTH. THEN WHAT WAS THE INDUSTRIAL REVOLUTION.

These things will obviously help stimulate the economy because they cause MORE ECONOMIC ACITIVTY. That causes growth.

I'm not saying technological growth doesn't lead to economic growth, I'm simply saying that it does not necessarily lead to growth. The industrial revolution saw sustained productivity growth which outstripped population growth. If you will the industrial revolution outpaced the diminishing returns on land, something it continues to do, to this day.

Teeninvestor said:
It's been proven academically Song population is about 100 million. This is not only on wikipedia, but also on other encyclopedias. Tang population was already about 60 million, you know. Ina ddition, I doubt the cultivated land in India was anywhere near the 720 million Mu during the Song.

Provide your proofs. Findlay & Rourke are in addition well regarded academics. In any case the area of land under cultivation is not really all useful to deduce crop yields but whatever.

Teeninvestor said:
I have already cited Growth in Ming and Song agricultural production far exceeded Population growth. In fact, a check of any Chinese history can show that agricultural production OUTPACED the population growth, in almost any dynasty. That is why specialized agriculture popped up during Ming; enough grain was being produced that whole provinces devoted themselves to other crops.

No you haven't. You've said that it did, you have provided no evidence from any source other than Wikipedia. Unfortunately I don't read Mandarin or Cantonese so that isn't much use to me. I'm aware that specialization of crops occurred during the Ming dynasty, but as I've stated that is merely descriptive and is of no use to me. I can't draw a conclusion about population growth or economic growth or productivity growth from the 'fact' that specialization grew I can't even infer anything from it.

Teeninvestor said:
Growth is an increase in economic activity. As long as economic activiity is increasing due to higher productivity, the economy is technically growing. The nature of preindustrial economies prohibit extremely higher growth(due to less returns on investment). And I'm sure you won't argue that the above do not increase economic activity?

Growth is an increase in economic activity over time, yes. Yes, not always due to productivity growth. That is one theory amongst many and is far to simple to explain the situation., but your right in that pre-industrial economies do prohibit growth. They don't necessarily increase economic activity. Economic growth does not preclude stagnation.

The ploughland was the same, yet a greater population could be fed. That destroys the main theme of the essay, which is that Chinese economic productivity did not increase; there was merely an increase in the ploughland. This fact that the ploughland stayed constant through all the dyansties show that it was the opposite that happened; the ploughland was the same, agricultural producitvity increased(except during Qing).

Diminishing returns. All the good land was already under protection and 'barren' land was bought under cultivation. That implies a diminishing return. With a diminishing return for each unit of labour added to work the land... you have diminishing productivity!

All land is subject to diminishing returns. I have a field, I add a tractor, productivity rises, I add another tractor the second tractor is only needed half the time, productivity declines, I add 10 tractors and you end up with grid lock, productivity declines further. Hence diminishing returns. That is first year economics... fixed stock of land, diminishing returns, the definition of productivity...
 
Diminishing returns. All the good land was already under protection and 'barren' land was bought under cultivation. That implies a diminishing return. With a diminishing return for each unit of labour added to work the land... you have diminishing productivity!

All land is subject to diminishing returns. I have a field, I add a tractor, productivity rises, I add another tractor the second tractor is only needed half the time, productivity declines, I add 10 tractors and you end up with grid lock, productivity declines further. Hence diminishing returns. That is first year economics... fixed stock of land, diminishing returns, the definition of productivity...

Yo, you realize that the ploughland remained constant, but a greater population was fed.

Let me put it this way:
Song- 720 million MU, 100 million ppl(fed)
Ming- 720 million MU, 180 million ppl(fed at same level as Song+surplus)
That is proof that agricultural production was rising during the same period.

That meant the production of the land was RISING the whole time, and returns were INCREASING. SO FAR YOU HAVE NOT ANSWERED THIS QUESTION. HOW IS CHINA IN A HIGH LEVEL EQUILIBRIUM TRAP, IF AGRICULTURAL PRODUCTIVITY WAS INCREASING.
EDIT: Because I do not associate with... how shall I put it politely.. idiots, I have added Teeninvestor to my ignore list. He has been given ample opportunity to counter my arguments - mostly about his use of Wikipedia as his only source. Therefore, I have concluded he follows the principle of argumentum ad nauseam.
A final word of advice; if you repeat something often enough, it doesn't always become the truth.
Good day.

You still haven't answered my question. How is Chinese economy not expanding qualitatively if agricultural production is rising.
 
Teeninvestor said:
Let me put it this way:
Song- 720 million MU, 100 million ppl(fed)
Ming- 720 million MU, 180 million ppl(fed at same level as Song+surplus)
That is proof that agricultural production was rising during the same period.

That meant the production of the land was RISING the whole time, and returns were INCREASING. SO FAR YOU HAVE NOT ANSWERED THIS QUESTION. HOW IS CHINA IN A HIGH LEVEL EQUILIBRIUM TRAP, IF AGRICULTURAL PRODUCTIVITY WAS INCREASING.

Fixed stock of land, diminishing returns and increasing population? It's not that hard to understand. Two sides of an equation and all that? Where is your evidence for this surplus and what were they doing with it (burning it?)

Teeninvestor said:
You still haven't answered my question. How is Chinese economy not expanding qualitatively if agricultural production is rising.

Because it had no increase in per capita GDP like I've shown. In any case re:

Flyingchicken said:
You misrepresent BananLee. I quote from his essay: "[...] it would be inaccurate to call the entire Ming-Qing period one of economic standstill. Heading towards stagnation is not the same as being there. The specialisation of crops and development of a thriving petty production industry would have doubtlessly improved the lot of the peasant family. Only when the land ran out after 1750 did problems start to rise for the still-increasing population. The term ‘quantitative growth, qualitative standstill’ would therefore only be accurate for a small sliver of the 1368-1799 period."
 
Fixed stock of land, diminishing returns and increasing population? It's not that hard to understand. Two sides of an equation and all that? Where is your evidence for this surplus and what were they doing with it (burning it?)

Uh if the same land can fed more and more people that isn't exactly diminshing returns is it... Also, considering not only was there more people fed, a gigantic surplus of grain was produced. See:

Emperor Hongwu (r. 1368–1398) attempted to create a society of self-sufficient rural communities in a rigid, immobile system that would have no need to engage with the commercial life and trade of urban centers. His rebuilding of China's agricultural base and strengthening of communication routes through the militarized courier system had the unintended effect of creating a vast agricultural surplus that could be sold at burgeoning markets located along courier routes. Rural culture and commerce became influenced by urban trends. The upper echelons of society embodied in the scholarly gentry class were also affected by this new consumption-based culture. In a departure from tradition, merchant families began to produce examination candidates to become scholar-officials and adopted cultural traits and practices typical of the gentry. Parallel to this trend involving social class and commercial consumption were changes in social and political philosophy, bureaucracy and governmental institutions, and even arts and literature.

From a featured article on wikipedia, the Ming dynasty. Check it out.

Because it had no increase in per capita GDP like I've shown. In any case re:

Yet again the increasing surplus of grain(as I have already pointed out, whole provinces stopped cultivating grain and cultivated other crops like Cotton, would have been unthinkable) meant that more grain was being produced per peasant= increase in GDP Per capita.

Fixed stock of land, diminishing returns and increasing population? It's not that hard to understand. Two sides of an equation and all that? Where is your evidence for this surplus and what were they doing with it (burning it?)

Selling it, obviously. That's the mention of the market for grain, eh?

Sources:
Check the sources for the Ming dynasty article on wikipedia, that's all I have to say.

Anyways, we've already proven that a) agricultural productivity was raising the whole time, surpassing population growth and actually creating a surplus. b) technological innovation during this time vastly improved life of people.

You would have no academic credibility if you think the Ming peasant's lot is just as bad as say , the Han or Roman times. A Ming peasant, with water-powered mills, carts, various iron tools, the wheelbarrow, and knowledge of advanced ploughing techniques, is far better than say, an ancient greek slave working his back off with a wooden stick.
If you disagree, check List of Chinese Inventions on wikipedia and check all the agricultural inventions. you think that did not improve productivity???

Also, a 1 minute search found this source to support my agricultural surplus theory-
http://books.google.ca/books?id=YuM...7t24CA&sa=X&oi=book_result&resnum=9&ct=result
 
I have already cited Growth in Ming and Song agricultural production far exceeded Population growth. In fact, a check of any Chinese history can show that agricultural production OUTPACED the population growth, in almost any dynasty. That is why specialized agriculture popped up during Ming; enough grain was being produced that whole provinces devoted themselves to other crops.

Far exceeded population growth? That claim is entirely absurd. China was an agricultural society, like all other pre-industrial societies. And it did not export food. What was produced was consumed. Unless the population was chronically malnourished during the previous centuries, what was not consumed was waste, and therefore of no economic value.

If you meant instead that production per farmer increased, and so did the fraction of urban population, well, that may or may not be true, I'm not the right person to comment on it.

Growth is an increase in economic activity. As long as economic activiity is increasing due to higher productivity, the economy is technically growing. The nature of preindustrial economies prohibit extremely higher growth(due to less returns on investment). And I'm sure you won't argue that the above do not increase economic activity?

I's absurd to speak of "the economy" about pre-industrial empires.The ideas about the proper running of a country, or of a family, during those times simply don't fit with what we now understand by "the economy". So I dare say that this discussion is becoming absurd.
Still the notion of malthusian trap (poor Malthus, decided to write about it just when it was disappearing! :lol:) is useful for historians, because one common thing over the history of all agrarian societies is the cycle of impoverishment of the peasants caused by population increases - usually followed by political crisis, wars or some other solution leading to a reductions in population or an increase in production. The important thing is that these are cyclical, and keep happening, even if they sometimes take centuries building up. China was not, and could not, be immune to it, unless it went beyond the agrarian state - and we already know that the Industrial Revolution did not start in China.

The ploughland was the same, yet a greater population could be fed. That destroys the main theme of the essay, which is that Chinese economic productivity did not increase; there was merely an increase in the ploughland.

THAT WAS NOT THE MAIN THEME OF THE ESSAY!

It wasn't even a theme in BananaLee's essay. The theme was that population eventually, after the 17th century, increased faster that production could. Before that production had increased, crops had diversified, some industrial activity increased (it even discusses cash-crops!), but eventually population growth brought unbearable pressure on the available resources. Imagine that a farmer might double his crop for the same area. But if population growth reduced the size of his plot to 1/4, he would be in a worse situation! Eventually labour was channeled to increase marginal returns (ouch, I hate using this expression, but it's right when speaking of limited land) which were by their nature decreasing - the farmer worked harder to try to make his smaller plot yield enough so that he didn't starve to death. Overall agricultural surplus can decrease under those conditions, even despite greater production by area.

Is this easy enough to understand now?
 
Teeninvestor said:
Uh if the same land can fed more and more people that isn't exactly diminshing returns is it... Also, considering not only was there more people fed, a gigantic surplus of grain was produced. See:

It is basic first year level economics that all land is subject to diminishing returns, the fact that you can feed more people on the same parcel does not invalidate diminishing returns. Fixed stock of land and all that basics economics.

Teenivestor said:
From a featured article on wikipedia, the Ming dynasty. Check it out.

Descriptive and thus completely useless to me. Vast is useless and vast surplus is useless, its historian speak not economic historian speak.

Yet again the increasing surplus of grain(as I have already pointed out, whole provinces stopped cultivating grain and cultivated other crops like Cotton, would have been unthinkable) meant that more grain was being produced per peasant= increase in GDP Per capita.

Your ignoring every other factor except grain to get your desired result. I've provided economic sources which have shown your claim to be demonstrably false, have shown that an increase in the stock of land cultivated does no necessarily indicate an increase in per capita GDP, have shown again and again that your 'facts' are descriptive nonsense which can't be used to show anything. So again I repeat, one side of the equation.

Teeninvestor said:
Selling it, obviously. That's the mention of the market for grain, eh?

Descriptive.

Teeninvestor said:
Anyways, we've already proven that a) agricultural productivity was raising the whole time, surpassing population growth and actually creating a surplus. b) technological innovation during this time vastly improved life of people.

I've shown that population increased, nowhere have I shown that agricultural productivity was increasing although I can infer that it had to have been to feed the growing population (two sides of an equation which you don't seem to understand). I've also shown that the average lot of people measured in GDP per capita did not significantly rise or rise at all.

Teeninvestor said:
You would have no academic credibility if you think the Ming peasant's lot is just as bad as say , the Han or Roman times. A Ming peasant, with water-powered mills, carts, various iron tools, the wheelbarrow, and knowledge of advanced ploughing techniques, is far better than say, an ancient greek slave working his back off with a wooden stick.

You don't seem to get that you can't measure GPD per capita in terms of any of those things. Your not looking at the purchasing power your looking at something linked to it but quite separate.

Teenivestor said:
If you disagree, check List of Chinese Inventions on wikipedia and check all the agricultural inventions. you think that did not improve productivity???

An increase in productivity does not necessarily lead to an increase in GDP per capita it can be eaten up by growth in population for instance. In legal parlance A does not always lead to B. I've stated this half a dozen times and you still fail to understand that. You also do not understand productivity.

Nor have I denied that technological invention might lead to an improvement in GDP per capita, I have merely stated again and again that A does not always lead to B.

Teenivestor said:
Also, a 1 minute search found this source to support my agricultural surplus theory-
http://books.google.ca/books?id=YuMc...um=9&ct=result

The Confusions of Pleasure said:
The Confusions of Pleasure marks a significant departure from the conventional ways in which Chinese history has been written. Rather than recounting the Ming dynasty in a series of political events and philosophical achievements, it narrates this longue durée in terms of the habits and strains of everyday life. Peppered with stories of real people and their negotiations of a rapidly changing world, this book provides a new way of seeing the Ming dynasty that not only contributes to the scholarly understanding of the period but also provides an entertaining and accessible introduction to Chinese history for anyone.

Again its descriptive and useless to me. It's also not quite up to academic standards having a look at the description. It's also not your theory, it's one you've quite prosaically from Wikipedia, don't claim it as yours.

innonimatu said:
Is this easy enough to understand now?

If you can get through to him I owe you. I've had to repeat again and again to make basic economic points, which he doesn't seem to understand.
 
You still haven't answered my question. How is Chinese economy not expanding qualitatively if agricultural production is rising.
Hello. I believe that the thesis statement of the essay was:

BananaLee said:
[...] it would be inaccurate to call the entire Ming-Qing period one of economic standstill. Heading towards stagnation is not the same as being there. The specialisation of crops and development of a thriving petty production industry would have doubtlessly improved the lot of the peasant family. Only when the land ran out after 1750 did problems start to rise for the still-increasing population. The term ‘quantitative growth, qualitative standstill’ would therefore only be accurate for a small sliver of the 1368-1799 period.

That was from this essay you so constantly vilify. Please point out how that says that Chinese economy had only quantitative growth and not qualitative growth.
 
It wasn't even a theme in BananaLee's essay. The theme was that population eventually, after the 17th century, increased faster that production could. Before that production had increased, crops had diversified, some industrial activity increased (it even discusses cash-crops!), but eventually population growth brought unbearable pressure on the available resources. Imagine that a farmer might double his crop for the same area. But if population growth reduced the size of his plot to 1/4, he would be in a worse situation! Eventually labour was channeled to increase marginal returns (ouch, I hate using this expression, but it's right when speaking of limited land) which were by their nature decreasing - the farmer worked harder to try to make his smaller plot yield enough so that he didn't starve to death. Overall agricultural surplus can decrease under those conditions, even despite greater production by area.

This part I agree with. After the 17 th century, The Chinese economy began to stagnate, though for more reasons than mentioned in the essay. However, before the 17 th century, this is demonstrably false.

Your ignoring every other factor except grain to get your desired result. I've provided economic sources which have shown your claim to be demonstrably false, have shown that an increase in the stock of land cultivated does no necessarily indicate an increase in per capita GDP, have shown again and again that your 'facts' are descriptive nonsense which can't be used to show anything. So again I repeat, one side of the equation.

K
Basic economics:
Technological increase= higher productivity= more food or "stuff" produced per person= increase in GDP per Capita.

What you are saying is that the population growth was such that it meant that the rate of resources diminishing cancelled out the technological productivity increase and caused GDP per capita to decrease. I apologize for not understanding thsi part.

However, I believe this premise does not exist.

The rise of specialized crops during Ming is enough to disprove this theory. Specialized agriculture= less land farmed for grain which meant the grain supply was more than the demand, so farmers stopped farming because other commodities were more profitable. This is enough to show that the increase in grain meant that was more grain per person , which is an increase in GDP per capita. This is a simple example, but it shows that GDP per capita was rising (at least during the Ming).

In addition, you have not taken into account the fact that a 300 million tael trade was in place during the late Ming dynasty. This would have caused an increase in GDP per capita as it did not exist before.

Also, the population pressure is not nearly as great as you think.
Even assuming a growth rate of 0.5% for the Ming, the economy would have increased by at least 8 times during its 278 year history(rule of 72). During the same time, the population of China rose by about 80%. So it would not be unreasonable to assume that the GDP per capita rose greatly during this period.

Another example- Ming tax revenues.
During the Hongwu Era, the agricultural tax was about 3.3% of output and yielded about 14 million taels.
about 200 years later, the agricultural tax was about 1.5% of output and yielded about 24 million taels.

The population increased about 70% in between.

Our focus on agriculture also obscures the gigantic increase in other industries, which was a hallmark of the Ming:
元朝中统四年(1263年)584万4000斤 (under Mongol Empire)
明朝永乐初年(1405年)是1957万5026斤 (Under Ming dynasty).

This info from a chinese source refers to steel production shows the jump in steel production from the Mongol Yuan to the Ming. As you can see, this was a massive increase. Keep in mind Ming did not end until 1644. It was believed the rate of growth slowed after the Yongle emperor, but you get the point; the development was huge.

Also, large-scale enterprises popped up in Ming that did not exist in prior dynasties.
For example, Zheng Zhilong, who ran several colonies in Philippines & indonesia, and was a big merchant in Ming's foreign trade, reputedly had a fortune of several hundred million taels. This did not appear in earlier dynasties. THe creation of such large enterprises, dealing with millions of taels, would also be a sign of increase in the economy, and thus, GDP Per capita.

For comparison, Ming government revenues equalled only 27 million taels in 1600, and at the time Ming had 31% of world's GDP.

I feel what I have presented above showed that MIng growth far exceeded population growth.

Also, as for my sources in a 5 minute search:
Cambridge history of China, the Ming dynasty
Li Bo and Zheng Yin, 5000 years of Chinese history, Inner Mongolian People's publishing corp , ISBN 7-204-04420-7, 2001
 
Teeninvestor said:
Technological increase= higher productivity= more food or "stuff" produced per person= increase in GDP per Capita.

Correct but still one side of the equation. If it were just an increase in technology holding everything else constant then yes you could infer that there was an increase in GDP per capita. Unfortunately we are not dealing with a situation where you can hold everything else constant.

Teenivestor said:
What you are saying is that the population growth was such that it meant that the rate of resources diminishing cancelled out the technological productivity increase and caused GDP per capita to decrease. I apologize for not understanding thsi part.

You've still got it wrong but your almost there. In any case this is what I have been saying for the entirety of the thread almost, it has taken you this long to understand a basic economic concept.:goodjob:

Teeninvestor said:
The rise of specialized crops during Ming is enough to disprove this theory. Specialized agriculture= less land farmed for grain which meant the grain supply was more than the demand, so farmers stopped farming because other commodities were more profitable. This is enough to show that the increase in grain meant that was more grain per person , which is an increase in GDP per capita. This is a simple example, but it shows that GDP per capita was rising (at least during the Ming).

No it does not. Your accounting for the Technological increase= higher productivity= more food or "stuff" produced per person= increase in GDP per Capita side but ignoring other factors which might be acting against an increase in GDP per capita like population.

Teeninvestor said:
In addition, you have not taken into account the fact that a 300 million tael trade was in place during the late Ming dynasty. This would have caused an increase in GDP per capita as it did not exist before.

It's descriptive, you haven't told me anything about the trade other than a single number, that single number is not enough to infer anything about it. I have provided examples in previous posts about what would be useful to me. That is not.

Teeninvestor said:
Also, the population pressure is not nearly as great as you think.
Even assuming a growth rate of 0.5% for the Ming, the economy would have increased by at least 8 times during its 278 year history(rule of 72). During the same time, the population of China rose by about 80%. So it would not be unreasonable to assume that the GDP per capita rose greatly during this period.

There was no way it grew at a rate of 0.5%, nor did it increase by a factor of 8 times during a period of 278 years. That would be so optimistic it would be comical. It is unreasonable, because your pulling figures from an example I made to illustrate a point about how growth must have been close to 0%, absurdly large GDP per capita and all.

Teeninvestor said:
Another example- Ming tax revenues.
During the Hongwu Era, the agricultural tax was about 3.3% of output and yielded about 14 million taels.
about 200 years later, the agricultural tax was about 1.5% of output and yielded about 24 million taels.

Again I can't infer anything except that tax revenues just under doubled, 200 years later despite a halving of the taxes on agriculture.

Teeninvestor said:
The population increased about 70% in between.

That is more useful. But I can't infer anything from the two together except to say that taxation revenue grew by about the same amount as population (potentially revenue grew more but I can't be sure).

Teeninvestor said:
This info from a chinese source refers to steel production shows the jump in steel production from the Mongol Yuan to the Ming. As you can see, this was a massive increase. Keep in mind Ming did not end until 1644. It was believed the rate of growth slowed after the Yongle emperor, but you get the point; the development was huge.

I can't read Mandarin. The figures could be 1 kilo to 3 kilo's for all I know. I'm however aware that the Ming did indeed see an increase in steel production.

Teeninvestor said:
Also, large-scale enterprises popped up in Ming that did not exist in prior dynasties.

Again I cant infer anything from 'large-scale enterprises popped up in Ming' it's descriptive.

Teeninvestor said:
For example, Zheng Zhilong, who ran several colonies in Philippines & indonesia, and was a big merchant in Ming's foreign trade, reputedly had a fortune of several hundred million taels. This did not appear in earlier dynasties. THe creation of such large enterprises, dealing with millions of taels, would also be a sign of increase in the economy, and thus, GDP Per capita.

Wasn't Zheng Zhilong a pirate who attacked the Ming? Although I'm aware of the large merchantile houses that China had in the period.

Teeninvestor said:
For comparison, Ming government revenues equalled only 27 million taels in 1600, and at the time Ming had 31% of world's GDP.

Comparison to what?

Teeninvestor said:
Also, as for my sources in a 5 minute search:
Cambridge history of China, the Ming dynasty
Li Bo and Zheng Yin, 5000 years of Chinese history, Inner Mongolian People's publishing corp , ISBN 7-204-04420-7, 2001

Evidence? You can't just quote book titles.

General Note:

Thus far I have shown that you have at best a crude understand of economics, that you do not understand basic economic principles, theories, definitions or that multiple factors might be acting on something. I've had to repeat myself post after post to get basic points across, think my consistent use of High Level Equilibrium Trap or the repeated use of Descriptive for instance. I have provided simple examples and have not resorted to language that someone with the use of Wikipedia could not understand (you eventually used that only after having made a fool of yourself). You attacked Malthus with something you lifted from Wikipedia, I responded, you let it slip because you had no idea how to respond. You accused me of being Heterodox for my use of Malthus, yet beyond a Wikipedia search, you had no understanding of what Malthus wrote, or even seemed to understand that what he did was 200 years old and has since been refined. You attacked my academic credibility on a number of occasions because you did not understand and still do not understand basic first year economics, you have since backed down from every attack because all you had for evidence is Wikipedia and did not seem to understand what it is you were writing.

In short: You have not argued, you have engaged in smearing of your opposition, you have engaged in misrepresentation and have only just begun to improve. I suggest that you read outside of Wikipedia and what is available on the internet, if you have access to a University Library then I implore you to spend your time there, or if you don't like to leave your seat you can at least use JSTOR or some-such.
 
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