BakingTheArt said:
Completely wrong.
A mined plains hill gives 4 hammers, right? Then why does a mined plains hill with iron give 8(?) hammers, if it just adds one?
The labels are claimed to refer to the unimproved tiles (where iron does only add one hammer, corn one food, incense one commerce, and so on). Note that I consider this a lousy justification for the labels, but its the only one we've been presented with - I'm just passing it on, not coming up with it.
I've counted my hammers before, and there's anywhere from one to six extra (1-9 with a forge) hammers that I believe must come from Iron, copper, horses, coal, oil or aluminum. Same goes for excess food, although I don't really understand the math that a granary adds.
Then I'm sorry, but you're adding it up wrong. You don't get free hammers like this - ditto for food and commerce. A quick screenshot from a recent game:
The city has access to all "hammer" resources except stone. This city has a full set of coal plant, factory and forge, and is generating 82 hammers per turn. This corresponds to a base hammer output of 41. If you look at the screenshot you'll see that the city is getting:
20 from the tiles, including the city tile.
4 from engineers
4 from the coal plant (random event)
13 from Mining Inc
That's all 41 accounted for. There's no hammers directly from resources.
And I know for certain that luxury resources give happiness.
Who claimed they didn't?
Besides, why would the AI want to trade food resources if they gave no bonuses?
For the health or happiness "food resources" give. No resource gives food/hammers/commerce directly through trading. They all however give health, happiness or strategic bonuses.
(Also, what's this mysterious "commerce resource" you're talking about?)
I never said a word about a "commerce resource". I was referring to the fact that the misleading labels sometimes indicate food or commerce instead of hammers. Again, these corresponded to the bonus given to the tile they are on in an unimproved state.
Polobo said:
If one knows they are right then 100 people disagreeing with him does not make him wrong. Likewise, agreement by others does not make one right.
If you don't know you are right then why should it matter whether it is one person or a bunch that oppose you. Either way you are guessing and so cannot assert correctness in the face of opposition. You would either need to disprove the opposition or prove your own assertions (or just wait for someone who can give a detailed explanation to chip in and then either poke holes or agree).
True, but he did ask for some opposition so I thought I'd chip in
. I had a bit more time for this post so I've included a screenshot for proof.
EweezE said:
Agreements do prove things. If on a civ matter you believed something one way, but Sid Meier himself said it otherwise, would you ask him to present "evidence" before believing it is so? I would think not. You would believe it is the way he says it is, then perhaps ask out of curiosity of game mechanics, why? Experts do not owe you their expertise on a matter, teachers do.
If what Sid was saying was in direct contradiction to observed game mechanics which I could supply evidence for, then yes. Even experts make mistakes, that's why evidence is useful.
Another example. Lawyers can bicker back and forth in the court of law. Nothing is actually proven however, until the jury ("Gang" of opposition) comes to an agreement. Their agreement proves the defendant's guilt or innocence.
Ugh - don't get me started on this one. Nothing is "proven" in any scientific sense by a jury's decision - this is at best an informed conclusion which a high proportion of people will come to. All the proving is supposed to be done by the evidence, and a jury is not infallible.