Fonetic tread!

Love

Deity
Joined
Feb 25, 2006
Messages
5,343
Location
On the island of fun!
Ive started this tread fore discuissing fonetic of all your different languages, and yes Rossiya, in my part we say Sweerye ;)
 
Phonetic for the win!
 
Why does English use ph in place of f in words borrowed from Greek?
 
Because phis have always been been transliterated "phi."

As for why that is, it probably has something to do with the original pronunciation of phi. It was probably more aspirated than a normal f, probably involving a heavy breath. I know that this is why rho and chi are transliterated with an h.
 
Phon- is a Greek root meaning sound.

Telefon is probably a word that went through English before getting to Swedish and therefore was spelled phonetically.
 
and tele means far, or distance, or something like that.

Wasn't phi pronounced more like a 'p' but with 'h' after it? Hence the ph sound gradually turning into 'f'.
The oddity is zeta, which was pronounced 'zd', but is transliterated 'z'.
 
Isn't zeta pronounced "dz?"

When the first Greek --> Latin transliteration occurred, zeta was translated as z, but it was considered two consonants (evidenced by how in Latin poetry, all consonants immediately before a z are long). Then I suppose the dz turned into a z in everyday talk for convenience's sake.
 
Top Bottom