Because phis have always been been transliterated "phi."
As for why that is, it probably has something to do with the original pronunciation of phi. It was probably more aspirated than a normal f, probably involving a heavy breath. I know that this is why rho and chi are transliterated with an h.
and tele means far, or distance, or something like that.
Wasn't phi pronounced more like a 'p' but with 'h' after it? Hence the ph sound gradually turning into 'f'.
The oddity is zeta, which was pronounced 'zd', but is transliterated 'z'.
When the first Greek --> Latin transliteration occurred, zeta was translated as z, but it was considered two consonants (evidenced by how in Latin poetry, all consonants immediately before a z are long). Then I suppose the dz turned into a z in everyday talk for convenience's sake.
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