Masterkill
Chieftain
- Joined
- Jan 29, 2010
- Messages
- 10
How could Greeks be so advanced on the classical era and civ be unable to represent that?
I mean, how can we explain it in civ-terms, how can one civ have 10 techs more than the second best civ?
They had, around V a.C philosophy, literature, drama, music, aesthetics, construction, democracy, currency, code of laws, machinery, metal casting and of course all required techs to achieve this.
That bother me, because middle ages seems much more productive then Classical one, which should be much more efficient.
I mean, how can we explain it in civ-terms, how can one civ have 10 techs more than the second best civ?
They had, around V a.C philosophy, literature, drama, music, aesthetics, construction, democracy, currency, code of laws, machinery, metal casting and of course all required techs to achieve this.
That bother me, because middle ages seems much more productive then Classical one, which should be much more efficient.