Trade-peror
UET Economist
I have added a new detail to the UET summary that could have wide implications. As many have suggested (although not necessarily in this thread), I have decided to make "manufactured" commodities possible.
Refined food and shield products would be "superior" to any raw food and shield commodities, and would therefore capture the demand of those raw food and shields, even though all food and shields (whether raw or refined) still function equally as food and shields. Refining food and shields requires certain city improvements (such as food processing plant, oil refinery, etc.) that convert raw commodities into their refined form.
This not only allows for more ways to break into markets that are dominated by lucky producers of rare commodities, this will simulate the trend in manufacturing that is crucial to portraying the Industrial Revolution in any reasonable manner. As a result, increasing modernization will see increasing amounts of manufactured commodities as a portion of the overall economy, and non-industrialized countries would have an incentive to industrialize even if they control certain key resources.
This allows an incredibly accurate simulation of the modern international economy. Industrialized countries rarely have completely raw commodities, with no refined equivalent, in their markets, and even markets in developing countries are sold refined products. On the other hand, rural areas will not be affected by this preference for refined products unless they are connected to markets that sell such products (and in such cases, they would prefer the refined form of the product). This allows raw commodities to still find markets in economically-independent areas (as is true in reality).
Notice that this is a rather subtle way of modeling the transition of the economy toward manufacturing and consumerism as technology progresses; it would be much better than having a tech that suddenly means all consumers demand manufactured goods, for example. With this method of the UET, the transition is not forced, but will generally become naturally apparent, especially as technology gradually increases the capacity of manufacturing and processing. In addition, non-industrialized civs will not be completely alienated from the global economy--unless industrialized civs decide to compete for their markets, these developing civs can continue to trade in raw commodities as they always have. In fact, non-industrialized civs do not even have to become industrialized upon learning how to industrialize; if they do not build any of the processing facilities, industrialization will not occur. Industrialization is not an overnight process, and certainly not a matter of discovering a particular technology that magically industrializes the entire country (as is implied in Civ).
Rather than continue to rant, I would welcome some suggestions or questions regarding this matter!
Refined food and shield products would be "superior" to any raw food and shield commodities, and would therefore capture the demand of those raw food and shields, even though all food and shields (whether raw or refined) still function equally as food and shields. Refining food and shields requires certain city improvements (such as food processing plant, oil refinery, etc.) that convert raw commodities into their refined form.
This not only allows for more ways to break into markets that are dominated by lucky producers of rare commodities, this will simulate the trend in manufacturing that is crucial to portraying the Industrial Revolution in any reasonable manner. As a result, increasing modernization will see increasing amounts of manufactured commodities as a portion of the overall economy, and non-industrialized countries would have an incentive to industrialize even if they control certain key resources.
This allows an incredibly accurate simulation of the modern international economy. Industrialized countries rarely have completely raw commodities, with no refined equivalent, in their markets, and even markets in developing countries are sold refined products. On the other hand, rural areas will not be affected by this preference for refined products unless they are connected to markets that sell such products (and in such cases, they would prefer the refined form of the product). This allows raw commodities to still find markets in economically-independent areas (as is true in reality).
Notice that this is a rather subtle way of modeling the transition of the economy toward manufacturing and consumerism as technology progresses; it would be much better than having a tech that suddenly means all consumers demand manufactured goods, for example. With this method of the UET, the transition is not forced, but will generally become naturally apparent, especially as technology gradually increases the capacity of manufacturing and processing. In addition, non-industrialized civs will not be completely alienated from the global economy--unless industrialized civs decide to compete for their markets, these developing civs can continue to trade in raw commodities as they always have. In fact, non-industrialized civs do not even have to become industrialized upon learning how to industrialize; if they do not build any of the processing facilities, industrialization will not occur. Industrialization is not an overnight process, and certainly not a matter of discovering a particular technology that magically industrializes the entire country (as is implied in Civ).
Rather than continue to rant, I would welcome some suggestions or questions regarding this matter!