Originally posted by SeleucusNicator
That depends on your definition of "France", I suppose. What we recognize as France was certainly never at war with the Roman Empire.
Originally posted by SeleucusNicator
That there were, but the Byzantine Empire was never at war with the Seleucids.
To link Seleucia to the Byzantines would require two more links. However, even that puts you at 8, making you the winner so far.
Originally posted by Thuloid
If we can say that about France and Rome, then I can do this---Mauryans->Seleucids->Romans->Spain->Mexico->Texas
And tie the 6.
Originally posted by Thuloid
I'm making a (tenuous) connection between the Visigothic kingdom and modern Spain via the kingdom of Asturias (founded by a remnant Visigothic nobility). To me, that's at least as valid as connecting a Frankish kingdom or some vassals of medieval France to the government of Napoleon III.
Originally posted by Thuloid
That depends entirely on what we mean by "completely different" and "continuity". You say that the French kingdom of the 9th century and post-Revolution France are part of the same continuum--I can easily say they're completely different.