srmacpherson
Chieftain
- Joined
- Jun 15, 2008
- Messages
- 73
What is the reasoning behind allowing the enemy to sweep across your lands (or vise-versa I'm assuming)?
A neighbor has waged war upon me and in his first turn entered my lands 3-4 squares in, sacking cities and razing improvements as he went.
I could see 2 to 3 squares into his lands and none of these armies were there, so this means they travelled quite the distance to attack me.
Just because there are roads there, should not mean that the enemy has free use of them. You're in enemy territory, you don't have the same logistics that you do in your own or friendly lands. You shouldn't be able to sweep through.
A neighbor has waged war upon me and in his first turn entered my lands 3-4 squares in, sacking cities and razing improvements as he went.
I could see 2 to 3 squares into his lands and none of these armies were there, so this means they travelled quite the distance to attack me.
Just because there are roads there, should not mean that the enemy has free use of them. You're in enemy territory, you don't have the same logistics that you do in your own or friendly lands. You shouldn't be able to sweep through.