LightSpectra
me autem minui
Why do you use "æ" dipthong when writing Caesar, out of curiosity? If you're trying to be systemically accurate, it would be IULIUSCÆSAR.
I can only ever read æ in the ipa/Anglo-saxon sense.
So whenever somebody writes cæser I always read it as "casser"
Maybe to highlight that in Classic Latin it was pronounced much more akin to "kaiser" than "seize her"?
Well þat's a bit of a dilemma.
Saxon isn't Germanic?
Disclaimer: I really don't know what I'm talking about
Saxon isn't Germanic?
Disclaimer: I really don't know what I'm talking about
I dont either know what Im talking about, but German, English and Scandinavian (norwegian, swedish and danish are different dialects of same language, we understand each other if we really want to) have same roots.
French, Spanish and Italy have very different roots. So Im guessing that northern europe has its language from Germanic tribes, while southern europe has it roots from Rome.
I really have no idea. Just pointing out that german, english and scandinavia has a lot in common. While spanish, french and italian are totally different.
Yes it is germanic. However æ is used universally in ipa, as is eth, however thorn is only used in specific circumstances. The proper character for the unvoinced alveolar fricative is theta.
It's actually the voiced one in "that" - ð
Oh, I agree. I was just saying it wasn't theta in that particular word either.