BalthusTraveler
Chieftain
- Joined
- Feb 22, 2008
- Messages
- 9
What causes other civs to develop a negative reaction to you if you were not the civ they went to war with? Does simply the act of declaring war make it unable for you to get Right of Passage, or is it ROP-violation wars that cause this?
Also, do computer civs develop a negative reaction to other computer civs they are at war with? Ex. if I attack a computer civ that went to war with my ally/trading partner with no provocation, will they develop a negative reaction to me?
I ask this because I just finished the Rise of Rome conquest. I was playing Persia and had been sucking up to Rome the duration of the game so that they would not declare war on me while I was taking out the Macedonians. I had been struggling to hit the 20% control mark after I defeated the Macedonians. Scythia had betrayed and attacked Rome during the battle against the Macedonians, so I decided to eliminate them to prevent them from backstabbing the Romans (or me) again. Rome did not react negatively to me after I did this, and the war was not an ROP-violation (I did not declare it on Scythian soil).
Later, I needed still more territory, so I got a military alliance and ROP from Rome to use against the Goths, and conquered them to the point where I controlled 19% of the map. I needed just one more percent to hit the 20 percent, so I declared war on the Carthaginians without provocation (they had done so to me earlier and stole one of my cities on an island). I got the island city back but was unable to put much of a dent in the Carthaginians, and Rome refused my offer for a military alliance, claiming I was "treacherous" or something similar, despite the fact that Rome had been fighting Carthage the entire game! I ended up going over the 20 percent mark with only 5 turns to spare when I used my Military Great Leader to sneak attack a Roman outlying city, because they had become too stubborn to work with. Why did this happen?
Also, do computer civs develop a negative reaction to other computer civs they are at war with? Ex. if I attack a computer civ that went to war with my ally/trading partner with no provocation, will they develop a negative reaction to me?
I ask this because I just finished the Rise of Rome conquest. I was playing Persia and had been sucking up to Rome the duration of the game so that they would not declare war on me while I was taking out the Macedonians. I had been struggling to hit the 20% control mark after I defeated the Macedonians. Scythia had betrayed and attacked Rome during the battle against the Macedonians, so I decided to eliminate them to prevent them from backstabbing the Romans (or me) again. Rome did not react negatively to me after I did this, and the war was not an ROP-violation (I did not declare it on Scythian soil).
Later, I needed still more territory, so I got a military alliance and ROP from Rome to use against the Goths, and conquered them to the point where I controlled 19% of the map. I needed just one more percent to hit the 20 percent, so I declared war on the Carthaginians without provocation (they had done so to me earlier and stole one of my cities on an island). I got the island city back but was unable to put much of a dent in the Carthaginians, and Rome refused my offer for a military alliance, claiming I was "treacherous" or something similar, despite the fact that Rome had been fighting Carthage the entire game! I ended up going over the 20 percent mark with only 5 turns to spare when I used my Military Great Leader to sneak attack a Roman outlying city, because they had become too stubborn to work with. Why did this happen?