A Question about the first Balkan war

[fing0lfin]

I'm not entirely certain what you're getting at here. It seems to be a weird mishmash of Realist talking points. But stating that the Great Powers had different interests - not a particularly interesting thing to say - doesn't really matter to what PCH was saying, namely that the Great Powers probably didn't conspire to keep the Balkans unstable because even if they had been working in concert, instability wouldn't have necessarily been in their interest.

Um, that did not actually happen after the First Balkan War. The Ottomans lost almost all of their European territories, and the Great Powers more or less acquiesced to this.

Hm i see that you can't understand me...may be it's because my not very good English..
So you are saying that instability wouldn't have necesseraly been in interest of the Great powers...well i have said the exactley the same thing.

The main ponit is that the polotics of the Great powers is mostly dictated by their interests, and yes sometimes it is in their interest that the situation is stable and sometimes not.

I don't state that there is some consipracy against the Balkan nations. I state that the welfare of the Balkan nations is not a goal for the Great powers. As already mentioned a certain great power may have had interest in the existance of e certain strong Balkan country and support it, but that's dictated by the interest of the Great power, not in favour of the welfare of the Balkan nation.

Um, that did not actually happen after the First Balkan War. The Ottomans lost almost all of their European territories, and the Great Powers more or less acquiesced to this.

I did not meant the Balkan wars particlar, but the situation in the Balkans in general. But even after the Balkan wars lots of problems stay unsloved, and this can be seen in WW1 and then in 1920-1922 again.