Reply to Malys-Faisen, Part III (Final One!)
Christainity
Gets back to what I said about the Separation of Church and State. Christianity did preserve some of what existed in classical times, but a good deal more of it was re-imported from elsewhere...Christianity served as a way to bind the different political organizations of Europe together more than it did in improving the lives of the average person through the preservation of knowledge.
But again, we were talking about two different time periods. With my "Separation of Church and State" clause I was talking about Friedrich Barbarossa's time; with the Christianity clause I was working in the earlier Medieval period when all forms of civilizational authority in the West had collapsed; (Pope Stephen & Charlemagne). Remember, we're talking the difference of half a millennium or more.
And the church didn't so much bind as provide a common intellectual and moral ground on which the various centripital forces of Medieval Europe could meet and coalesce. Late Medieval Popes would wield power through armies and wealth, but early Medieval bishops of Rome were at the mercy of the local warlords and had little power outside of moral persuasion even among other churches.
Rule of Law
Muhahahaha!!!
Always happy to amuse others.
The absence of Rule of Law is more the point. Law using societies; the Muslims and Chinese, stopped expanding well before they reached the limits of their power...the inability of any ruler to dominate Europe was because there weren't any effective laws to govern the Europeans...The Romans had them, the English and French didn't, until it was too difficult (ie Nationstates had evolved) for them to conquer each other! The French later dominated and ruled over a good deal of Europe because of one man (Napolean) and the Germans by the same token (Hitler). Because there were no laws governing the situation, the Europeans were able to kill, plunder, etc. on all the other nations that they encountered that couldn't stand up to them militarily. European law is a modern invention, unlike places like the Middle East and China that have been governed by law for centuries.
Europe itself is a modern invention; the name "Europe" was only used in common parlance by Europeans in the late 17th century and officially in the Treaty of Utrecht of 1714. The term "The West" is even newer. Prior to the religious wars of the 16th and 17th centuries that shattered it, Europe thought of itself as
Christendom. This also represents Europe's final disillusionment with religious authority in politics.
Aside from that, European legal development is a bit older than the 18th century.... It has been a work in progress since, as I mentioned earlier, the Normans first developed their own unique feudal concepts in the 11th century. To say that modern law only developed in modern times is a bit disingenious. Of course it did! But did no law exist in Europe prior to, say, 1700? I think it did. Codified law stretches back to Sumeria, Egypt, China, and all the early civilizations but there's a difference between
Rule of Law and merely having laws. Rule of Law refers to the supremacy of the law over everyone -
EVERYONE - in a given society - from the leader (President, Prime Minister, King, etc.) all the way down to the citizens. In contrast, in ancient China or Mogul India an ordinary person had no rights vis-a-vis the Emperor's or Mogul's needs and desires. Today in France or Canada an average citizen can legally challenge their respective governments through peaceful means. To use a Jeffersonian phrase, it is government through the consent of the governed.
The Chinese and Moslems stopped expanding when their armies wouldn't carry them any farther. My ancestors in Poland spent many centuries fighting off Islamic invasions, as indeed by the 17th century Poland was the only Eastern Central European state not conquered by the Ottomans. The older Arab Islamic empire similarly only stopped when its military limits had been reached; in Europe's case that meant the Pyrenees in Iberia and the combination of Khazaria and Byzantium in the east. The various Chinese states expanded and contracted according to military expediency. I'm not sure I understand your point about your claim of a lack of laws being connected to the lack of a single political leadership. We're talking a civilization, not a country. China can be confused that way because it is uniquely both a civilization and a country, but the West is a civilization. Is this what you are refering to? Civilizations share common social, political, etc. things and beliefs but are rarely ruled in common under a single political roof. There are specifically Western concepts of law - some discussed here - that developed throughout Europe and its progeny although rarely was there ever a single unform way of application throughout the West. Is this what you mean?
The dominance of European culture in modern times is the result of aggression, expansion, thievery and murder...on top of this, in modern times we have developed effective ways of governing our people as well as effective economies...but these are modern inventions...Europeans had already set the stage to dominate the world by the industrial age, everything that came during and after the industrial age was a solidifying of European dominance that had already started...
Far too simplistic. How then do you explain the failure of earlier aggression, thievery and murder on the part of, say, the Chinese, the Moslems, the Mongols, the Aztecs, the Iroquois, the Assyrians, the Zulu, etc., etc., etc., to develop into world-wide empires or systems? What magically transformed the European experience into such a success? What then made the Europeans more aggressive or murderous than anyone else? Were they? I can't imagine the Mongols were any less ruthless, for one. The early Islamic conquests overran and destroyed - steamrollered! - many cultures and peoples. What happened with the Europeans? Were the Europeans just a particularly evil people, and if so, why? Had the Europeans succumbed to either Islamic or Mongol conquest (as they very nearly did on both accounts) would Europeans have been just another forgotten civilization? Effective governance and economies are not just modern European inventions - their seeds lie in the full experience of European history. They didn't just suddenly spring forth in the 18th or 19th century out of the blue.
If the question is why did Europeans dominate the world, the answer is because they could, through their civilization's superior adaptive skills which led to the reasons I've listed in my original post. They were not the first to try, nor will they probably be the last. Take a look through history and count how many rulers declared themselves rulers of the world. There's quite a few. (This is a basic civilizational issue the West is currently having with the Islamic world; that the Quran says
they should be ruling the world...) Europe came closest to succeeding, though still not quite completely. In the process Europe created a world standard of politics, law, diplomacy, economics, trade, lingua franca, etc. that provides the forum on which most peoples of the world meet today. Reminds me of that scene in Monty Python's
The Life of Brian where the Jewish revolutionaries have a rousing meeting decrying Roman rule, only to come to the reluctant conclusion by the end that the Romans have actually provided many civilizational and technical benefits for the Jews.
Thanks for the debate, Malys Faisent; I sometimes wondered whether anyone ever read these posts! While I do take exception to your charge that I am Euro-centric in my views - my formal education forcibly spanned beyond Europe's history and I've always maintained a active interest in non-European histories, especially Islamic - your points are well taken and appreciated.
Keep it comin'!