Why is latin america call that way?

Yeah, I got the feeling that Latin = Italy, from all the Caesar games I've played... where 'Latium' (IIRC) is the central province of Italy (which includes Rome), back in the Roman Empire days. 'Latium' was apparently the name of their homeland/ home province in central Italy.
 
privatehudson said:
No, I mean that calling it after it's Former owners is utterly illogical :lol: You don't see northern America called "English* America" or similar now do you? :mischief:
That is "a point"? :eek: I dont care how you call north-america.

The fact is that it is called "latin america" when iberoamerica or hispanoamerica would be more acurate.

That and the fact that other latin-derived languages speaking people's reside there also :)
Yes. They are not part of Spain or Portugal since 200 years ago. (i didnt know it :rolleyes: ) But they dont use latin neither, maybe 500 years ago in some official or religious document ... :D Neverthless you say we should call it latin america. OTOH they speak spanish and portuguesse ----> iberia and Hispania.

*And yes I am aware that other countries once owned that area :rolleyes:

Do pay attention please :p
There was very little to pay attention to indeed.. :D
 
I dont care how you call north-america

That wasn't my point, I can see you're not capable of, or unwilling to understand it :rolleyes:

The fact is that it is called "latin america" when iberoamerica or hispanoamerica would be more acurate.

:hmm: Not really, neither Spain or Portugal own any of the countries any more, as I said, it's illogical to link it to a country simply on the basis of former ownership and language that not everyone there even speaks, and the equivalent of referring to the rest as "english" america. Not logical in the slightest :)

But they dont use latin neither, maybe 500 years ago in some official or religious document ... Neverthless you say we should call it latin america. OTOH they speak spanish and portuguesse ----> iberia and Hispania.

Some speak French and English as first languages, not Spanish or similar :mischief:

There was very little to pay attention indeed.

Whatever :rolleyes: It was showing you what your "logic" would look like when turned on other areas :)
 
That wasn't my point, I can see you're not capable of, or unwilling to understand it
I am (read below). But you added the "We dont do it" argument. Who cares? :rolleyes:

Not really, neither Spain or Portugal own any of the countries any more, as I said, it's illogical to link it to a country simply on the basis of former ownership and language that not everyone there even speaks, and the equivalent of referring to the rest as "english" america. Not logical in the slightest
And this is your "point". :lol:

You seem obsesionated with the Iberoamerica independence, relax, They are totally emancipated. :D It is not a link to a country (although there are more and more strong links, economics, cultural, people... ) but to a language, capicci?


Some speak French and English as first languages, not Spanish or similar
...and Dutch. However you call it Latin america. :rolleyes:

You should call it latin-anglo-dutch America or something. :lol: No way.
I call it iberoamerica since near the entire continent speak only Spanish and Portuguesse.

"Overlord" will do nicely...
Canada is the Overlord? :p
 
You seem obsesionated with the Iberoamerica independence, relax, They are totally emancipated.

Uhmm no :crazyeye:

It is not a link to a country (although there are more and more strong links, economics, cultural, people... ) but to a language, capicci?

That not everyone speaks :mischief:

However you call it Latin america.

It's in common usage, I call it what anglo-saxons generally call it :) What spaniards call it is their own weird business :lol:

You should call it latin-anglo-dutch America or something. No way.

Not really, as I said, common usage and common sense :mischief:

I call it iberoamerica since near the entire continent speak only Spanish and Portuguess

So you'd presumably call SE asia "Chinese Asia" then? :crazyeye:

Personally I don't much care what illogical reasons you have, we call it that because it's the common term for it, if you don't like it tough :p I won't loose sleep on your logic anymore :D

Plus Iberio America or similar just sounds ridiculous :lol:
 
Thorgalaeg said:
Canada is the Overlord? :p

Nah, they're just 'over'... or, 'above'... :mischief:

Yeah, that's it... just conjoin Canada's new nickname, with ours, and you get the afore mentioned title for North America... :mischief:
 
And Mexico? :D
 
privatehudson said:
Uhmm no



That not everyone speaks



It's in common usage, I call it what anglo-saxons generally call it What spaniards call it is their own weird business



Not really, as I said, common usage and common sense



So you'd presumably call SE asia "Chinese Asia" then?

Personally I don't much care what illogical reasons you have, we call it that because it's the common term for it, if you don't like it tough I won't loose sleep on your logic anymore

Plus Iberio America or similar just sounds ridiculous
Common sense, common usage, sounds ridiculous and an incredible amount of smilies...

Wow. Definitive post. :goodjob:
 
At least I adressed your points rather than stooping to ignoring them. The question was why call it that, the answer is because it's a modern european/american way of splitting America and Canada off from the remainder. Spanish/Iberian America sounds innacurate and would probably offend those living there. We don't use similar reasoning elesewhere, and yet are expected to redefine how we call it because of a couple of unamused European countries? I think not thank you.

It speaks volumes that you think the commmon sense reason is ridiculous, thank you, that does more than I can ever do to undermine your points :)
 
samildanach said:
Originally posted by Stapel
This did lead however to the Second Anglo-Dutch War, from 1665 to 1667. This war was finally settled in june 1667 by The Dutch greatest admiral 'De Ruyter' who sailed to Chatham Dockyard, capturing the "Royal Charles" – the pride of the English navy, and sinking or burning three other great ships, - the "Royal James," "Royal Oake" and "Loyal London", and a number of others.

I think this qualifies as a digression :) Is this a manifestation of the same trait that causes Brits to bring up WWII in all conversations regardless of topic? ;) Personally, it doesn't bother me to be reminded of catastrophic English defeats even though I'm British. I don't know why that is - it's inexplicable. :)
I just wanted to explain why there is a Dutch speaking nation in 'Latin' America.
And yes, it's always good to brag about the greatest naval war achievement in Dutch history.

BTW: Loyal London is a typo :) .
 
We were going through a bad phase that few decades... we recovered :D
 
I suppose technically (at least, according to the definition), the Dutch speaking parts of Central & South America, are not considered 'Latin America'.

A couple of definitions for 'Latin America':

n : the countries of the Western Hemisphere south of the United States, especially those speaking Spanish, Portuguese, or French.

n : the parts of North and South America south of the United States where Romance languages are spoken

I was right though... bascially everything south of the Rio Grande. Possibly some small exceptions (like where they don't speak 'romance languages' - but that's yet another definition) :p
 
At least I adressed your points rather than stooping to ignoring them.
Once again, there were nothing to adrees in your post, really. How could i argue against you commonsense-commonusage-soundridiculous arguments?

About the Chinese SE-Asia thing i thought it was a joke. That comparison is absolutely against "common sense". :lol:

The question was why call it that, the answer is because it's a modern european/american way of splitting America and Canada off from the remainder. Spanish/Iberian America sounds innacurate and would probably offend those living there. We don't use similar reasoning elesewhere, and yet are expected to redefine how we call it because of a couple of unamused European countries? I think not thank you.
I know several iberoamericans and they would not be offended in any manner. In fact they use iberoamerica and latinamerica Indistinctly.

And "Sounds inacurate" Nice argument again. A litte question: You would include Quebec in Latin America?

It speaks volumes that you think the commmon sense reason is ridiculous, thank you, that does more than I can ever do to undermine your points
Ridiculous? Putting words in others mouth? Bad.
However you should know that common sense doesnt demonstrate anything. Everybody think common sense is in his side. :mischief:
 
Interestingly enough not everyone in the former Spanish American countries speaks Spanish well or even at all. Among the large number of Ecuadorians I have met are a few who speak Quetchwa primarily and Spanish poorly if at all (I learned how to call a dog in Quetchwa today). I still think of them as Latin Americans as it is a useful generic term for those from South and Central America.
 
French historian Fernand Braudel in 1865 coined the expression "Latinamerica" for political purposes to thwart Iberian influence in the area.


Hispanoamerica: refers to countries with roots in Spain and speak Spanish only
Iberoamerica: refers to countries with roots in Spain and Portugal (Iberian peninsula) including Brasil
Latinamerica: refers to countries with Spanish, Portuguese and French roots. Does not include Canada or Quebeque.


South americans don't feel insulted when we refer to it as Iberoamérica. In fact in some countries such as Colombia their Spanish is so correct that it seems almost archaical to us Spaniards used to our modern slang.

Iberoamerica comprehends not only the language (let's be realistic, Spanish is spoken overwhelmingly followed by Portuguese) but the culture, the common roots, the traditions, the religion, the common names, etc... No country in South America speaks Italian, and French is a minority language that is spoken in Haiti, Les Martiniques etc...French influence remains in Canada. Hence the most appropiate term would be Iberoamérica which comprehends the two countries with the strongest historical, cultural, language, religious, kinship ties to South America: Spain and Portugal.

Iberoamérica truly depicts the Modern History of the Southern Hemisphere. Naturally, i'm not proud of many things Spaniards did there, OTH Americans cannot be too proud with what they did to the native americans and Britain, well the list could just go on. So no point in trashing each other. Lovers of History know who and for what purpose was Latinamerica coined, as a means of French propaganda.

The thread starts by asking the question why is Latinamerica called that way ? Now we know. And the correct term ought to be Iberoamerica or Hispanoamerica, whichever. People are free to choose to call it Latinamerica if they please, but to try to undermine the importance and significance of Spain and Portugal in the area is ludicrous and tantamount to being ignorant.

South american friends I have joke about calling Spain la Madre Patria, the mother homeland. So all in all South America for the worst or for the best has a very strong link to Spain and Portugal, and hence the term Iberoamerica is the appropiate one IMHO. All ambassadors to his Majesty refer to it as Iberoamérica, none as Latinamerica because there's subtle game being played by French nineteenth century propaganda trying to undermine the Iberian influence and at the same time empower the non-existant French influence in the Southern hemisphere.



Chileans thoughts on the above:
http://www.utem.cl/trilogia/Volumen_1/p_1_2.htm
 
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