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How familiar are you with sexual morality in early 19th Century America, out of curiosity?

And I didn't say our sexual morality has nothing to do with traditional Christian sexual morality, just that we are not dependant on what previous Christians said on the matter.
 
How familiar are you with sexual morality in early 19th Century America, out of curiosity?

Just general knowledge out of interest. The women's liberation movement in particular is something I find interesting, and knowing what it was born out of.

And I didn't say our sexual morality has nothing to do with traditional Christian sexual morality, just that we are not dependant on what previous Christians said on the matter.

Even though mormonism (mormonity?) isn't dependent on any christian tradition it's clear that its ideas were inspired by the society it was created in. What puzzles me is that you haven't moved on. After all, you have living prophets who can change the rules. This makes it much easier to adjust to a changing society than religions that are stuck with old books to interpret.
 
Just general knowledge out of interest. The women's liberation movement in particular is something I find interesting, and knowing what it was born out of.

Well, the women's liberation movement was about a lot more than sexual morality.

Even though mormonism (mormonity?) isn't dependent on any christian tradition it's clear that its ideas were inspired by the society it was created in. What puzzles me is that you haven't moved on. After all, you have living prophets who can change the rules. This makes it much easier to adjust to a changing society than religions that are stuck with old books to interpret.

Except of course, these prophets say they speak for God. And they have basically said that God has reiterated His views on the matter. And God's sexual morality (or what He commands us to do) doesn't change a whole heck of a lot. And as much as you don't want to think so, the idea that God wants us to restrict certain behaviors is quite plausible.
 
Well, the women's liberation movement was about a lot more than sexual morality.

Are you just arguing for the argument? I'm quite aware of this, however you asked me so I explained why. Women being masters of their own bodies is an unbelievably huge deal in the history of mankind.

Except of course, these prophets say they speak for God. And they have basically said that God has reiterated His views on the matter. And God's sexual morality (or what He commands us to do) doesn't change a whole heck of a lot. And as much as you don't want to think so, the idea that God wants us to restrict certain behaviors is quite plausible.

Yes I know you think your prophets speak for god. But your god can say to the prophets 'hey, I've changed my mind, let's do things differently now', just like he did with the whole polygamy thing. That was my point.

I'll let your last comment slide since that's not exactly a debate point, just some cheap shot that's unfounded in reality.
 
Women being masters of their own bodies is an unbelievably huge deal in the history of mankind.

Of course it is. Women, and men, should be masters of their own body, should be the ones to decide what to do with them.

Yes I know you think your prophets speak for god. But your god can say to the prophets 'hey, I've changed my mind, let's do things differently now', just like he did with the whole polygamy thing. That was my point.

Actually, and all the revelations are clear on this, we never claimed God changed His mind on polygamy, just that He changed what He commanded us to do. If He wants to tell us something different about premarital sex, he is welcome to. But a liberal sexual morality is no more "modern" than a conservative one.

I'll let your last comment slide since that's not exactly a debate point, just some cheap shot that's unfounded in reality.

No, I meant it. I really don't see why you don't seem to understand that God might possible tell us not to do certain things even though the rest of society wants to do them.

But this is getting very off topic. The thread is "Ask a Theologian", not "Mormons are incredibly sexually repressed".
 
I can't say I'm entirely clear even on what is being debated over the past page or so.

Anyway, on Catholic marriage, I'm actually not sure what the answer is. I can say, off the top of my head, that marriage was regarded as one of the seven sacraments by the thirteenth century at the latest. Peter Lombard listed it among the sacraments in the twelfth century, and his views became definitive in the thirteenth (after his orthodoxy was vindicated at the Fourth Lateran Council in 1215 and his work subsequently became the standard theological textbook at Oxford and Paris). No doubt the Catholic Church performed marriages long before this time - indeed, one of the reasons the interdict was such a powerful weapon for the papacy was that, when the interdict was imposed upon a country, no-one there could get married - but I don't know the details. I shall look it up.

As for the biblical definition of marriage, I don't believe there is one. In fact the biblical writers hardly ever define anything, which is one of the reasons Christians have never been able to agree about anything. Not that it would make much difference, perhaps - the writer to the Hebrews gives a definition of "faith", but Christians have never been able to agree even what faith is.
 
Thank for the reply ^__^ but then why has there been such a shabbang about gay bishops and priests? Is it just tradition there or what?
 
Thank for the reply ^__^ but then why has there been such a shabbang about gay bishops and priests? Is it just tradition there or what?

Because different Christians disagree over whether homosexuality is OK or not. Much of this comes down to cultural differences. For example, the most vehemently anti-gay sentiment has come from the African churches, which are now extremely influential, especially in the Anglican communion, where most of this argument is taking place. The Anglican church of Nigeria is larger than the Church of England, which means that Peter Akinola, the archbishop of Nigeria, is effectively more powerful in the Anglican church than the archbishop of Canterbury. And Akinola is an appalling homophobe who likens gay people to animals and criminals. That, I suppose, is partly due to his culture - there is enormous prejudice against homosexuality in much of Africa. In the western churches, that prejudice exists for much the same reason as it does outside the churches, I suppose.

The dispute is so big in the Anglican church because it is such a broad church. Anglicanism varies from the extremely "high" (Anglo-Catholics who are Roman Catholics in all but name) to the extremely "low" (fundamentalists in neat suits who as Bible-bashing as any Baptist), via the incredibly liberal (theologians who don't believe in anything at all). The American Anglican church (known as the Episcopalian church, because it changed its name for political reasons after the war of independence) is disproportionately liberal. I don't know of the historical reasons for this. So the Episcopalian church tends to be extremely comfortable with homosexuality, to the extent that they are happy to ordain practising homosexuals as priests and bishops, something which is contrary to the official position of the Anglican church (which is something along the lines of - homosexuality isn't exactly OK, but let's try to pretend it doesn't exist and turn a blind eye, except for priests). And of course the African churches and the fundamentalists elsewhere go completely ape over this because they believe that homosexuality is intrinsically sinful. The problem for the archbishop of Canterbury is that he has to find some middle way between all of these people, and it is an insoluble problem because they all have fundamentally different understandings of Christianity to begin with.

What were marriages like for jews 2000 years ago?

Now that really is outside my area of expertise. I really don't know, except that I suspect there is no simple answer, because Judaism was an extremely varied movement in the time of Jesus (it only became more uniform after the end of the first century AD).
 
Thank you for all the info Plotinus. If their differences are so great in the Anglican churches, how come they don't split?
 
They may well split, and indeed Akinola has threatened to do so. But you should never underestimate the power of inertia. The Anglican churches have been a single communion for a very long time and are tied together by important historical roots. Moreover, the Anglican church has usually made a virtue out of its disparate nature. The idea is that its different elements give it greater versatility and strength, making it overall more balanced than churches that insist upon greater doctrinal or liturgical uniformity. The downside, of course, is that you get situations such as this. Now the Anglican churches have been divided before - most notably over the issue of women priests - but I think that the issue of homosexuality is a far more fundamental division than that, for a number of reasons, and I don't think there will be a solution that proves satisfactory to everyone. Many individuals did leave the church over women priests (and that was just in the Church of England), although there was no schism. Some parishes still won't accept women priests, and they won't even accept the authority of a bishop who has ordained women priests (such an attitude is formally heretical, akin to the views of the Donatists in the fourth century) but the Church of England got around this problem with wonderful pragmatism: it appointed several "flying bishops", with no diocese, who travel around the country administering those rebel parishes. So they all remain happily within the Church of England. I don't think that any such solution will be found to the issue of homosexuality, so I suspect that eventually there will be schism, though I don't know what form it will take or who will initiate it.
 
So this recent conversation is somewhat of a good tie-in for my first re-re-re-clarification.

1. Why is it that all desires of the flesh are considered bad? This goes somewhat hand in hand with my previous argument against apatheia, since I see them as intrinsic to experience, the flesh being nothing more than a complex set of senses. Now, I am defining such desires to include everything, not just those sexual in nature, and perhaps that's where the problem is originating.

I thought it was fact that Jesus enjoyed physical pleasures, notably eating and good old foot massages. How is this to be reconciled with such a position?

As to sex, however, I understand the position a bit better, so if that's all it infers, then no need to go into it.

2. I see, again, the picture I was painting of an orderly progression was a bit simplistic. Constant differences, different schools of thought, etc.

3. For the gnostics, was spirit almost a simple logical concept and nothing more? What can differentiate it from mind, if mind incorporates subjective experience then? Would there be any way to "know" one had a soul or any difference in experience at all between a souled person and a non-souled one?

4. Plotinus: so self-reflection creates a division between the experience of being a thing and the concept of that thing, what I would consider the most fundamental dichotomy, of subjective and objective, conceptual and sensual. This reflection, assuming he believes in an eternal God, would be an inherent attribute, and would therefore be similar in essence to the concept of the trinity as previously stated? A sort of dual at one basic level but singular at the most basic level sort of thing?

5. Wait, so sex wasn't bad for a long time?! My head is spinning... I need to make sure, maybe I've misunderstood?

6. What exactly is this love of God? Wouldn't it necessarily change depending on the individual's definition of God? If God is the universe, then wouldn't loving life and all the ways to enjoy life be loving God, and therefore sensual experiences could be a way to this, especially since the senses themselves would then be part of God? Perhaps simply being aware of this fact while enjoying them is sufficient? Or is it sitting in a dark room and thinking of a set of abstract concepts? I guess I'm wondering if there's any actual schools of thought as to what this communion with God actually is, as it has always seemed a wishy-washy sort of thing to me, not ever really explained in much detail.
 
What were marriages like for jews 2000 years ago?

Probably not much different than today, but, as Plotinus said, there's no simple answer. The day to day lives of people back then were very different from those of people today &, as anyone who is married can tell you, day to day life has a big affect on a marraige.

-A marriage contract called a ketubah is used to form a Jewish marraige. It is signed by the groom, the rabbi & witnesses immediately before the wedding ceremony. Basically, it lists the groom's responsiblities towards the bride. Today, with gender equality being a big issue, some Reform & Conservative Jews use a revised ketubah that both the groom & the bride sign, but it's original form places all burdens of the marraige on the groom. The original ketubah is written in Aramaic so it probably dates to around 2000 years ago. The one I signed is in Aramaic. The rabbi translated it for me. Sometimes, when my wife asks me to do something I don't want to, I rib her by saying that it's not in the ketubah.:D

-As far as I know, the Biblical custom of taking a concubine was no longer practiced by 2000 years ago. Not even Herod had a concubine that I know of. When he wanted a new wife, he simply killed the one he had so he could remarry. I'm pretty sure monogamy was the cultural expectation of a Jewish marraige 2000 years ago.

-Children born to unwed parents (bastards) were the lowest rung of the social ladder. Unmarried women who had children were social outcasts unless they claimed rape.

-Young Jewish adults were expected to be married as is still the case among Orthodox & Chasidic Jews. "Be fruitful & multiply" is a mitzvah (good deed/Commandment from G-d). This has fueled some of the recent speculation that Jesus was married (Da Vinci Code type stuff).

-Families were probably large as in many children. There were no easy methods of birth control as we have today. They were largely an agricultural society. Those points & the mitzvah mentioned above provide my reasoning.

-Today, divorces are granted by a Get, a rabbinical court. I know Gets existed in the Middle Ages, but I'm not sure if they were around while the Temple was standing. While the Temple was standing, the Cohenim (Temple Preisthood) were the religious authority. With no Temple, rabbis are now the religious authority. Cohenim (a hereditary role) have some extra religious obligations, but no religious authority today.

Your question is very general, but I hope I helped answer it. If you have a specific question, I'll give it a whack.

Now that really is outside my area of expertise. I really don't know, except that I suspect there is no simple answer, because Judaism was an extremely varied movement in the time of Jesus (it only became more uniform after the end of the first century AD).

Very true. Judaism is pretty varied today, too, but most variances regard levels of observation, not differences of doctrine.

EDIT: I'm still loving this thread, Plotinus. I look in whenever I see there has been a new post.
 
Thank you :)

Are there any records of other jews through history who claimed to be the son of god or fulfilling the laws of god or something similar? It's my impression that at the time of Jesus there were a lot of selph-proclaimed prophets of various kinds with small followings, such as John the baptist..
 
5. Wait, so sex wasn't bad for a long time?! My head is spinning... I need to make sure, maybe I've misunderstood?

First Corinthians 7:3-5
The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise the wife to her husband. The wife's body does not belong to her alone but also to her husband. In the same way, the husband's body does not belong to him alone but also to his wife. Do not deprive each other except by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because of your lack of self-control.

Sex wasn't bad within the confines of marriage, according to this passage. This would be a Christian response; for a Jewish view, we could go here:

Song of Solomon 1:16
How handsome you are, my lover! Oh, how charming! And our bed is verdant.
 
By "soul" here I'm thinking of the notion of a substance, that is, something which is both conceptually and really distinct from the body and which could, in principle, survive without it. You are right to say that dualism is still a live option in philosophy of mind (Chalmers, in particular, helped to revive it in recent years). However, dualism needn't be substance dualism. I think there are very few contemporary philosophers who would defend the notion of "soul" as I outlined it above - Richard Swinburne is the one major exception. I think most philosophers would agree that there is a conceptual distinction between mind and body, but they would say that it does not follow from this that there is a real one (Descartes, of course, thought that the former entailed the latter - bizarrely, since he had read scholastic philosophy and ought to have been aware of Scotus' distinction between the two kinds of distinction). Those philosophers who believe that not everything mental can be explained solely in terms of the physical (which is a rough definition of dualism) need not necessarily believe that the mind is completely distinct from the body and could survive without it (which is a rough definition of substance dualism).
I'm not getting this dualism beyond substance dualism. What kind of explination do they suppose for mind-body interaction if not one based on physics, biochemistry et al?
 
1. Why is it that all desires of the flesh are considered bad? This goes somewhat hand in hand with my previous argument against apatheia, since I see them as intrinsic to experience, the flesh being nothing more than a complex set of senses. Now, I am defining such desires to include everything, not just those sexual in nature, and perhaps that's where the problem is originating.

I thought it was fact that Jesus enjoyed physical pleasures, notably eating and good old foot massages. How is this to be reconciled with such a position?

Certainly the notion that all desires of the flesh are bad would not be an orthodox Christian view, since it smacks of Gnosticism. To the degree that some Christians have said it, though, I think the idea is that you're supposed to be focusing on God, and anything that distracts you is therefore bad - not bad in itself, perhaps, but bad from the point of view of someone wanting to focus upon God. So you find this idea in some of the Desert Fathers, for example, and later monastic writers too. In other words, where it appears in orthodox Christianity, it tends to be a specialised thing, for ascetics, mystics, and other professional God-gazers. I can't think off-hand of any suggestion in orthodox Christianity that no-one should enjoy physical pleasures. It really goes back to Plato, in one form or another, although the ideal of apatheia is Stoic. Note also that spiritual teachers have generally taught that even enjoyment of spiritual things can also be a distraction from God. If you're just gazing upon God because it's pleasant to do so, you won't see him at all.

I'm not sure how proponents of such a view would reconcile it with Jesus' engagement in physical activities. They could argue that we are never told that Jesus enjoyed eating, foot-rubbing etc, only that he did it. Or perhaps Jesus' perfect union with God meant that such things wouldn't distract him as they can other people. Or something like that. Of course, the Gnostics wouldn't have accepted that Jesus really did those things at all - or that the Jesus who did them was not identical with the true saviour. So you can see how a Gnostic tendency in ethics tends to lead to heretical christology.

3. For the gnostics, was spirit almost a simple logical concept and nothing more? What can differentiate it from mind, if mind incorporates subjective experience then? Would there be any way to "know" one had a soul or any difference in experience at all between a souled person and a non-souled one?

I don't know the answers to these questions. The Gnostics would have distinguished between "soul" and "spirit", though. They thought that soul (psyche) is something that everyone has, and it is rather like very rarified matter. That is, if there is a great distinction between matter on the one hand and spirit on the other, soul is allied to matter, not to spirit. It is not divine, does not come from the Pleroma, and is associated with the Demiurge (himself a psychic being). Psyche is where consciousness and self-awareness are found. Spirit (pneuma), by contrast, is your link to the divine; it is in virtue of having spirit that you transcend the earthly realm.

"Mind" (nous) would be part of psyche. Remember that Plato divided psyche into three parts - nous, thymos (courage, kind of) and epithymia (base desire).

4. Plotinus: so self-reflection creates a division between the experience of being a thing and the concept of that thing, what I would consider the most fundamental dichotomy, of subjective and objective, conceptual and sensual. This reflection, assuming he believes in an eternal God, would be an inherent attribute, and would therefore be similar in essence to the concept of the trinity as previously stated? A sort of dual at one basic level but singular at the most basic level sort of thing?

Well, that's not really how the Trinity works. According to the orthodox doctrine, both the unity and the distinction in the Godhead are most basic and fundamental. It's not like God appears as three but is really one: he is really three, and the threeness is just as real as the oneness. Of course they operate at different levels (the unity is at the level of ousia and the multiplicity at the level of hypostasis) but neither is more fundamental than the other.

I'm not sure if Plotinus' explanation of multiplicity is exactly about the objective/subjective distinction, but that's only because I don't know enough about Plotinus to say (it's a very, very long time since I read him). Bear in mind, though, that Plotinus' One is not really like God. The One is not personal and indeed has no attributes at all. Divinity, for Plotinus, exists at the next level below the One, the level of the divine Nous.

5. Wait, so sex wasn't bad for a long time?! My head is spinning... I need to make sure, maybe I've misunderstood?

In orthodox Christianity, sex has never been bad per se. The claim that it is intrinsically bad is really a Gnostic claim (or a claim by groups similar to the Gnostics, such as the Cathars).

6. What exactly is this love of God? Wouldn't it necessarily change depending on the individual's definition of God? If God is the universe, then wouldn't loving life and all the ways to enjoy life be loving God, and therefore sensual experiences could be a way to this, especially since the senses themselves would then be part of God? Perhaps simply being aware of this fact while enjoying them is sufficient? Or is it sitting in a dark room and thinking of a set of abstract concepts? I guess I'm wondering if there's any actual schools of thought as to what this communion with God actually is, as it has always seemed a wishy-washy sort of thing to me, not ever really explained in much detail.

Of course the idea that God is identical to the universe is hardly an orthodox Christian belief, although some Christians may have come close to it. However, certainly many Christians have believed that God should be encountered through the world rather than apart from it. Dietrich Bonhoeffer would be a good example of this. Mt 25:31-46 might be confirmation of this sort of view. At the same time, of course, there is the notion that to focus on God properly you must withdraw from the world to at least some degree. Lk 10:38-42 is the classic text for this view.

Much has been written on what the experience of the love of God is like. I suppose the two main traditions, within Christianity, are the cataphatic (saying it is like something, typically light) and the apophatic (saying it transcends any description). Here are some passages from one of the major cataphatic mystics:

Symeon the New Theologian said:
I have frequently seen light, sometimes within me... and sometimes it appeared externally, from afar, or even it was completely hidden, and by its hiddenness caused me unbearable pain, because I thought I would never see it again. But when I again lamented and wept... it appeared like the sun which penetrates through the thickness of the clouds and gradually shows itself as a gently glowing sphere.


At once I was so greatly moved to tears and love for God, that I would be unable to describe the joy and delight I then felt. Immediately I fell prostrate on the ground and saw, behold, a great light that was immaterially shining on me and seized hold of my whole mind and soul, so that I was struck with amazement at the unexpected marvel and was as if in ecstasy. Nor is this all; I forget the place where I stood, and who I was, and where, and could only cry out: “Lord, have mercy,” so that when I came to myself I recognised that I was saying this. But who was speaking in me... I do not know – God knows. Whether I was in the body, or out of the body when I conversed with this light – only the light itself knows this.


I saw again an awesome mystery. Seizing hold of me and ascending to heaven, you took me up with you – whether in the body or out of the body, I do not know, you alone know, who had done this. But when I had spent some time with you there, struck with wonder at the greatness of the glory... and astounded at the measureless height, I was totally awestruck.


God becomes for those who are worthy
Like a divine and luminous pool,
Embracing them all...
The divine Spirit...
Being himself light without sunset,
Transforms all those in whom he lives
Into light...


He shines in my poor heart,
Illumining me from every side by his immortal radiance,
Lightening all my members by his rays...
I partake of his light, I participate in his glory,
And my face shines as the face of my Beloved,
And all my members become light-bearing.
I become then more beautiful than the most beautiful...
And much more precious than all visible things...


God is fire, and he came to send fire on the earth... If it is lit in someone, it grows in him until it becomes a great flame and reaches heaven... The burning of the soul that is inflamed by it does not occur in an unconscious manner... but in full assurance and knowledge... Having entirely purified us from stain of passions, [this fire] becomes our food and drink, illumination and joy within us, and it makes us light by participation... When the soul... is united with the divine and immaterial fire... then the body as well becomes by participation the fire of this divine and unspeakable light.


We practise all this asceticism and all these actions only in order to partake of the divine light, like a lamp, so that we may bring our souls as a single candle to the inaccessible light.


He who has within himself the light of the all-holy Spirit, being unable to bear the sight of it, falls prostrate on the ground, cries out and shouts in amazement and great fear, as one who sees and experiences the thing beyond nature, word or understanding. He becomes like a man whose entrails are touched by fire; being scorched by flame, he is not able to bear this burning, and becomes like one in ecstasy... He pours out more tears and, being purified by their flood, shines with a greater brilliance. And when, being totally inflamed, he becomes light, then is accomplished what is said: “God united with gods and known by them; and this is, probably, to the extent that he is already united with those who are attached to him, and revealed to those who have known him.”


God is light, and to those who have entered into union with him he imparts of his own brightness to the extent that they have been purified... O marvel! Man is united to God spiritually and physically... Through essential unity he also has three hypostases by grace, being a single god by adoption, with body and soul and the divine Spirit, of whom he has become a partaker. Then is fulfilled what was spoken by the prophet David: “I said: you are gods, and you are all the sons of the Most High,” that is, sons of the Most High according to his image and likeness.

Here is a passage from a major apophatic mystic:

Albertus Magnus said:
...To ascend to God means nothing else than to enter into oneself. And, indeed, he who enters into the secret place of his own soul passes beyond himself, and does in very truth ascend to God.

Banish, therefore, from your heart the distractions of earth and turn your eyes to spiritual joys, that you may learn at last to rest in the light of the contemplation of God.

Indeed the soul’s true life and her rest are to abide in God, held fast by love, and sweetly refreshed by the divine consolations.

But many are the obstacles which hinder us from tasting this rest, and of our own strength we could never attain to it. The reason is evident – the mind is distracted and preoccupied; it cannot enter into itself by the aid of the memory, for it is blinded by phantoms; nor can it enter by the intellect, for it is vitiated by the passions. Even the desire of interior joys and spiritual delights fails to draw it inward. It lies so deeply buried in things that are sensed and transitory that it cannot return to itself as to the image of God.

How needful it is, then, that the soul, lifted upon the wings of reverence and humble confidence, should rise above itself and every creature by entire detachment, and should be able to say within itself: He whom I seek, love, desire, among all, more than all, and above all, cannot be perceived by the senses or the imagination, for he is above both the senses and the understanding. He cannot be perceived by the senses, yet he is the object of all our desires; he is without shape, but he is supremely worthy of our heart’s deepest love. He is beyond compare, and to the pure in heart greatly to be desired. Above all else he is sweet and worthy of love; his goodness and perfection are infinite.

When you understand this, your soul will enter into the darkness of the spirit, and will advance further and penetrate more deeply into itself. You will by this means be able more speedily to see in a dark manner the Trinity in Unity, and Unity in Trinity, in Christ Jesus, in proportion as your effort is more inward; and the greater is your love, the more precious the fruit you will reap. For the highest, in spiritual things, is ever that which is most interior. Do not grow weary, therefore, and do not rest from your efforts until you have received some foretaste of the fullness of joy that awaits you, and have obtained some first-fruits of the divine sweetness and delights.

Cease not in your pursuit until “the God of gods will be seen in Sion”...

That passage from Albertus is really just a restatement of the teachings of Pseudo-Dionysius, who is the big man when it comes to apophatic mysticism. Here are two important passages from his Mystical theology, arguably the most influential mystical text of all time:

Pseudo-Dionysius the Areopagite said:
It was not without reason that the blessed Moses was commanded first to undergo purification himself and then to separate himself from those who had not undergone it; and after the entire purification heard many-voiced trumpets and saw many lights streaming forth with pure and manifold rays; and that he was thereafter separated from the multitude, with the elect priests, and pressed forward to the summit of the divine ascent. Nevertheless, he did not attain to the Presence of God himself; he saw not him (for he cannot be looked upon) but the place where he dwells. And this I take to signify that the divinest and highest things seen by the eyes or contemplated by the mind are but the symbolical expressions of those that are immediately beneath him who is above all. Through these, his incomprehensible Presence is manifested upon those heights of his holy places; that then it breaks forth, even from that which is seen and that which sees, and plunges the mystic into the Darkness of Unknowing, whence all perfection of understanding is excluded, and he is enwrapped in that which is altogether intangible and noumenal, being wholly absorbed in him who is beyond all, and in none else (whether himself or another); and through the inactivity of all his reasoning powers is united by his highest faculty to him who is wholly unknowable; thus by knowing nothing he knows that which is beyond his knowledge...

...the higher we soar in contemplation the more limited become our expressions of that which is purely intelligible; even as now, when plunging into the Darkness which is above the intellect, we pass not merely into brevity of speech, but even into absolute silence, of thoughts as well as of words. Thus, in the former discourse [this is a reference to another book by him], our contemplations descended from the highest to the lowest, embracing an ever-widening number of conceptions, which increased at each stage of the descent; but in the present discourse we mount upwards from below to that which is the highest, and, accordin to the degree of transcendence, so our speech is restrained until, the entire ascent being accomplished, we become wholly voiceless, inasmuch as we are absorbed in him who is totally ineffable.

Pseudo-Dionysius (writing in around AD 500) gets the idea of using Moses as a type of the mystic from Gregory of Nyssa, whose Life of Moses contains much the same ideas. Gregory is really the first Christian apophatic mystic. And he gets this interpretation of Moses from Origen, except that Origen believes that the spiritual journey is one of increasing knowledge, not one of increasing unknowledge. I believe that Origen's use of the text ultimately goes back to Philo.

Origen also uses the Song of Songs as an allegory of the soul's relationship with God, and this too has been a constant theme in Christian mysticism, with medieval writers such as Bernard of Clairvaux doing the same thing. The Bride in the book is taken to represent the mystic's soul, and the Groom is Christ. So Origen writes in a famous passage:

Origen said:
Often - God is my witness - I have felt the Bridegroom come close to me, so that he was almost with me, and then suddenly went away, and I could not find what I was looking for. Again I find myself desiring his coming, and sometimes he returns; and when he appears before me, and I reach my hands out towards him, he escapes me again and disappears, and I must start searching again. He does this again and again, until I hold on to him firmly and ascend, leaning on my beloved.

Descriptions of the experience of God are always like this, highly metaphorical. Make of that what you will!
 
Thank you :)

Are there any records of other jews through history who claimed to be the son of god or fulfilling the laws of god or something similar? It's my impression that at the time of Jesus there were a lot of selph-proclaimed prophets of various kinds with small followings, such as John the baptist..

There were indeed many prophets at the time of Jesus, John the Baptist being the most famous. Others included Honi the Circle Drawer (first century BC) and "the Egyptian", who apparently claimed to be a messiah and a new Joshua (later first century AD). There were many messianic prophets and many teachers, and also many miracle-workers (Honi worked miracles but didn't do much else). The unusual thing about Jesus is that he was all of these at the same time.

Jesus probably never claimed to be "the son of God", which, as I've explained a million times in this thread, would have meant nothing more than someone whom God approves of. The Old Testament states that all Jews are sons of God. As for fulfilling the laws of God, I should think all pious Jews would have hoped they were doing that.

No-one really knows what Jesus claimed about himself, if indeed he did claim anything at all.

Perfection said:
I'm not getting this dualism beyond substance dualism. What kind of explination do they suppose for mind-body interaction if not one based on physics, biochemistry et al?

This is an amazingly complex matter, which I understood very well eighteen months ago when I was studying it in more depth, and which I have now forgotten. Fortunately it's not theology so I'm not obliged to attempt an answer here. You need to bear in mind that the notion of "substance" itself is rather an arcane one in philosophy (it does not mean what scientists usually take it to mean), which complicates things. And the term "physical" is pretty vague too: it seems to me that modern physicists and chemists spend most of their time talking about entities that aren't really "physical" in any normal sense of the word at all. However, philosophers who take a moderately dualist line aren't obliged to provide an explanation for those things which they think are not explained by the physical; their point is simply that there are certain things that cannot be explained solely by the physical. The prime examples are usually qualia, which are supposed to contain information which cannot be reduced to the physical. I'm sure you're familiar with Frank Jackson's famous arguments for this position.

I don't remember if I said this before, but it's an interesting quirk of modern philosophy that most philosophers reject dualism, yet most of the good arguments are actually for dualism. Those who argue against dualism spend most of their time trying to show what's wrong with the arguments for it, rather than presenting positive arguments for a monist alternative.
 
Are there any records of other jews through history who claimed to be the son of god or fulfilling the laws of god or something similar? It's my impression that at the time of Jesus there were a lot of selph-proclaimed prophets of various kinds with small followings, such as John the baptist..

There were indeed many prophets at the time of Jesus, John the Baptist being the most famous. Others included Honi the Circle Drawer (first century BC) and "the Egyptian", who apparently claimed to be a messiah and a new Joshua (later first century AD). There were many messianic prophets and many teachers, and also many miracle-workers (Honi worked miracles but didn't do much else). The unusual thing about Jesus is that he was all of these at the same time.

Jesus probably never claimed to be "the son of God", which, as I've explained a million times in this thread, would have meant nothing more than someone whom God approves of. The Old Testament states that all Jews are sons of God. As for fulfilling the laws of God, I should think all pious Jews would have hoped they were doing that.

No-one really knows what Jesus claimed about himself, if indeed he did claim anything at all.

I wanted to see Plotinus' response before replying. I'll add a little.

It's important to remember that the Jewish world was almost in a state of social chaos at the time of Jesus. Lacking the physical power to change things, many Jews turned to spiritual answers. This created an atmosphere that was ripe for "prohepts" & "messiahs."

Herod, the Jewish king, was universally hated by his fellow Jews & subjects. He wasn't a Hasmonean, the Jewish royal family at the time. His wife was. He eventually had her & at least two of their sons killed, but she helped prop up his claim to the throne. He was a puppet ruler of Rome. Being ruled by polytheistic idoloters has never been viewed kindly by Jews. The Hasmonean line itself came to power through a Jewish revolt against Greek pagan rule. Revolts against Rome in 70 & 135 C.E. failed.

Plotinus can correct me, but I've thought that the negative view of Herod in the New Testament reflects the Jewish view of him during the time of Jesus.

Today, Jews remember him as a good man for rebuilding the Temple, but as a terribly bad man for usurping the Hasmonean throne, colluding with the Romans & ruthlessly killing so many people.

Concerning John the Baptist, many Christians today may not know that ritual bathing was an old Jewish tradition even at the time of Jesus. What is unusual about the story of John the Baptist is that he was conducting a ritual bath in the Jordan river. Jewish ritual bathing occurs in a mikvah-a bath that uses only rainwater. The thinking is that water that has touched the ground is ritually impure. Archaeologists know they have uncovered a Jewish community when they find a mikvah. Chasidic & many Orthodox Jews still prartice ritual bathing.

Besides Jesus, the most influential example would have been Sabbetai Tzvi. I'm typing from memory so forgive me being a little vague. Sabbetai Tzvi was a Jew from Palestine who declared himself the messiah & was reported to perfom several miracles. This was the 16th century, IIRC. He was so convincing that rabbis all over Europe & the Middle East preached that the messiah had finally arrived. Jews by the thousands sold their possessions & set out to join the "messiah." Tzvi caused such an uproar that the Ottoman sultan ordered Tzvi to appear before him. The sultan gave him a choice: prove that he was the messiah by being beheaded & resurectiing or convert to Islam. Tzvi converted to Islam...

First Corinthians 7:3-5
The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise the wife to her husband. The wife's body does not belong to her alone but also to her husband. In the same way, the husband's body does not belong to him alone but also to his wife. Do not deprive each other except by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because of your lack of self-control.

Sex wasn't bad within the confines of marriage, according to this passage. This would be a Christian response;

It's interesting that, besides spouses owning each other's bodies, this is very similar to the Jewish view.

for a Jewish view, we could go here:

Song of Solomon 1:16
How handsome you are, my lover! Oh, how charming! And our bed is verdant.

The Song of Solomon is a good read, but not really a "Jewish view" of marriage. Jews see it as a beautiful example of ancient, Hebrew poetry. Even ancient romantics used poetry to express themselves (& woo women);) .
 
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