Originally posted by newfangle
Inalienable rights are the core of the ethics. You cannot rape, pillage and plunder without violating the rights of another man.
You haven't answered the question. I'm asking what/where, in Rand's ethics, make some actions immorals.
I'm asking where, in her ethics, she explain WHY these rights exist, HOW, and WHY they should not be infringed.
So far, you're only repeating the conclusion. I want the reasoning.
I'm going to ask for some definitions from you, so I may be best able to answer your question. "What's good for you is good universally." What does "good" mean?
I'm talking about randism, so I'm using randism definition of good, ie "what I consider good for me".
I define "good" as something complimenting mans rational survival, thus anything I do good will always benefit everyone else.
No.
As it was said plenty of time, I can do something that does me good (robbing, raping, murdering, plundering), and that won't benefit others.
It's like talking to a wall, really. You just discard what goes against your already-set opinions, even when it's plain reality.
Stealing is unethical because it does not fit my definition of good, and is also violating the inalienable rights of others.
Well, let's suppose I'm a thief and I consider theft ethical, then it makes it ethical according to randism.
And again you bring the rights of "others", but again there is nothing in randism that talk about "others".
You keep throwing around this word, "universal." I'm fairly sure this morality applies to man and man alone (or another conscious being that happens to drop us a line). For example, if a gorilla kills me in a jungle, my rights are not being violated no evil has been comitted.
You dodged the question, or you didn't understand it.
If others have inalienable rights, it means there is an ethical rule that concerns everything (or, at least, every other humans). It means that it's a rule that is ABOVE me.
It means that there is something higher which rules that there is things that could profit me, but that I should not do because they violate the rights of others.
So it means that there is an ethical rules, a definition of "good" and "evil", that supercede my own profit.
Which is in contradiction with the definition of Rand, where "good" and "evil" are only defined by my own self, which, by definition, doesn't include others.
It's a point of LOGIC, that every randist seems to be either unable to grasp, either not wanting to grasp.
Because every other rational being would dispise the unethical person and probably lynch him.
Only if I get caught. Which has been said about ten times. Do you even bother to read, or do you just repeat and repeat and repeat the same things without taking the reasonings and the proofs into account, thinking that you just need to repeat it enough to make it true ?
If I don't have remorses about doing it, and if I can be reasonnably sure I won't be caught, then it DOES profit me, and then it's considered ethical by Rand's own saying.
I offer my example as the current state of the world. Though it does have its problems, and there are some especially sneaky criminals, you will note that the vast majority of people that choose to be animals end up getting ass raped by Bubba in a State Pen.
Well, you just admitted there IS criminal that just get away with it. Which means there IS conflicting interests between rationnal humans.
Which means randism is false.
Thanks for (unvoluntarily) proving my point.
Oh, and you can't discard them as being "non rationnal" : they did something that profited themselves, which is perfectly rationnal.