You've already lost the argument, because what is being claimed is a conclusion to a hypothesis. We are not merely collecting data and forming observations. That is an observational study. What is being claimed is that philosophy majors are high performers on the LSAT and therefore philosophy is a useful major for studying law. That is a conclusion of comparative study in which there are two groups: philosophers and non-philosophers. Since you have selection bias (only some choose to take LSAT), you cannot conclude one from the other.
There is already enough of a logical fallacy in this implication anyway, because it assumes LSAT competence has any bearing on skill in practicing the law. The LSAT is not an achievement test, where skill is tested on a specific subject. It is a standardized test that measures more general knowledge.
Other people may have made this claim, but I haven't. I'm not sure why you're quoting me and arguing against the above claim. I am simply claiming that top phil students perform better on standardized tests used for graduate schools than other Arts majors which means they are either taught more rigourous skills that those tests examine or are naturally more talented going in to the program. I have no idea whether or not that means phil students would make better lawyers than other groups.
I don't know what "top" means here.
I don't know where you found this 3/4 number.
I left these deliberately vague. It reduces accuracy, but increases the likelihood of being correct. I'm sorry I simply don't have numbers to use here. I don't have access to them. I'm making a broad claim on the basis of plausibility. Are these numbers plausible? If yes, then I have done my job.
If you want to think of this formally, consider there being an operator "P" in front of each of my claims that means "it is plausible that."
Ah, so it's actually hubris for you! You assume that anyone sharp enough to excel in liberal arts should be driven to go to grad school! Anyone else must be damned stupid.
I'm not sure why that's hubris but anyways, I never assumed
everyperson who does well in Arts programs goes on to grad and professional schools. Why do you always ignore the nuances, quantifiers and qualifiers of my arguments? It makes your responses completely inapplicable. I assumed that about 75% try to by writing those standardized exams. I don't know how accurate that number is, but it looks about right to me.
If it turns out that really 50% do then you just readjust the definition of top students until the claims is accurate given that information. Do you see why I leave those two vague? They are directly correlated and I don't have information to make them precise. I'm not going to compile this thread into a research paper to publish. I am making haphazard claims that I think are plausible given the state of our information. I'm trying to argue for their plausibility not their accuracy.
Btw, I don't even believe that LSAC has access to people's transcripts. Maybe they have access to the transcripts of those who were accepted to law schools, but not everyone. That just adds a whole new level of selection bias.
I also disbelieve the propaganda spewed by LSAC that you claim. Of course they will use statistics to back up claims of their own value! Why would they ever claim that the conclusions they gather from their own stats are useless? And why would they draw conclusions from their stats that imply anything but that the candidates that are selected are nothing but the best? My own medical school did the same fake stat game.
Every Law school that is a member of LSAC sends transcripts of law school applicants to LSAC which standardizes the GPAs of those applicants and then sends that number to law schools. It's actually the school's AdCom which prorates the GPA based on what schools those grades came from, at the least for the U of T which does so on mean LSAT score from that school.
http://www.lsac.org/policies/transcript-summarization.asp