Originally posted by SKILORD2
by succed i mean that the Czar had made said reforms, thereby placating his people making the Russian political system, eventually, virtually identical to the british one.
Then I cannot really see anything changing, to be honest.
You have to remember that the two revolutions of 1917 did not come about because of some sort of high minded desire on the part of The Russian people for a huge turnabout in Russias political system - They came about simply because the war was destroying the country. Basics such as food, etc were becoming less and less avalible, The Germans were ploughing through the country, and the people were becoming more desperate.
Russia would have still have had it's collective backside kicked in WW1, and the revolutions would have still most probaly have claimed Tsarism, and communism would have still most probably came about. (If we are presuming the PG is still hopelessly politically naive as it is in OTL.)
As I said, you probably need both a large social, political and economic revolution to take place in Russia in the 19th century if you wish to see Some sort of constitutional monarchy retained in Russia throughout the 20th century.
A hopelessly outdated political system was only one reason for the Fall of Tsarism. A hopelessly outmatched country economically was the other main one.
All of this conjecture, of course, does not go to address the fact that Nicholas was a dogged opponent of even the most basic reforms to the system, and for him to actually enact something close to a parliamentary democracy would have been a total turnaround.
Originally posted by SKILORD2
3. What if the French Revolution hadn't succeded
In what sense? The revolution hadn't gone all the way to removing Louis? It hadn't even gotten off the ground in the first place?
Be more specific in future please.