Does the 1st Amendment really grant the sweeping freedoms we think it does? I ask because I was thinking about it and realized the 1st Amendment starts with the words " Congress shall make no law". Now if we take that as written, it would seem all the pro 1st Amendment rulings made by the Supreme Court might be wrong. As written, it would seem that federal, state, and local governments can limit the rights outlined in the 1st Amendment up to and including outright and indefinite suspensions of those rights as long as it doesn't come from the legislative branch. So if the president or a governor wanted to, say, issue an executive order banning the worship of a certain religion or establishing a state religion, it would seem such an executive order, technically, wouldn't be a violation of the 1st Amendment. It might be illegal for other reasons, but not on 1st Amendment grounds.
Or, instead of such drastic measures, the various government departments were suddenly given the same latitude to fire people based on what they say, their political opinions, etc. that private corporations have. Right now that can't happen because that is generally seen as a 1st Amendment violation, but most government departments fall under the executive branch, not the legislative branch, and thus should technically be allowed to limit the exercise of 1st Amendment rights without it being considered unconstitutional to do so.
What do you guys think? Have we been fortunate this apparent loophole hasn't been exploited and we have a Supreme Court that hasn't taken such a literalist approach to the 1st Amendment?
Or, instead of such drastic measures, the various government departments were suddenly given the same latitude to fire people based on what they say, their political opinions, etc. that private corporations have. Right now that can't happen because that is generally seen as a 1st Amendment violation, but most government departments fall under the executive branch, not the legislative branch, and thus should technically be allowed to limit the exercise of 1st Amendment rights without it being considered unconstitutional to do so.
What do you guys think? Have we been fortunate this apparent loophole hasn't been exploited and we have a Supreme Court that hasn't taken such a literalist approach to the 1st Amendment?