Article: the American use of the atomic bombs

Also the bombings were never intended as reprisal in that kind. And to bomb German civilians and their living areas and supply is also damn near to a genocide.
Now that's just nonsense. You're just spouting hyberole for the sake of impact. The bombing of German civilians- deliberate or not- was not because they were German, and so cannot be reasonable associated with genocide in any way.
The Holocaust was genocide, the Holodomor was "damn near to genocide" and the bombing o Dresden was simply mass-killing. There's distinctions there. I'd've thought that a law student would know that.
 
Adler said:
However there is much spoken here. And all arguments are told. I suggest to stop here.
Hold your horses Adler, I have still something little to comment...;)
I decided to step in for a small chat.
C-G makes a very good point, but I think for the sake of ease those issues are usually lumped under morale. Certainly when I said Liverpool was percieved as being close to collapse it wasn't civilian morale that caused this statement as it remained high and defiant. It was rather that the infrastructure of the city was thought to have collapsed, and local efforts to keep the city going were believed to be failing.
My point is that in some cases separating strategic bombing of infrastructure from bombing in order to lower morale is quite difficult.

However I think the difference is on scale and also the methods. I think lowering "the morale" (will to fight) IMO can be quite often effectively considered only to be happening by causing terror and destruction by bombing civilians.
@ C~G:
To break the morale is a valid aim. But to do that by bombing civilians is not. And even if there was no alternative that had to be abandoned at the point it was showing that it was useless. The morale wasn't broken. Indeed all chances of a revolution against the browns were destroyed. You can't do much while you are in bomb shelters. At this point the Allies had to abandon it finally. They didn't.
The nuking of a city had to be the ultima ratio. Even if war was lasting a month loger the other possibilities had to be taken. Japan could have surrendered, too when the bomb was used in the way I already explained. Thus it was a warcrime.
First of all Adler, I have to say I agree about some things you have said in this thread.

But like always when talking about historical facts and the decisions made by different sides based into these and the moral dimensions and possible justifications of these decisions and the following acts, it all depends what kind of approach we happen to take. And before any even distinctive lines between different premises can be drawn we have to layout the situation back then for all to see.

In this discussion more than ever (especially since it maybe heated up) people see the reality of 1940s completely differently. This causes severe problems when people then start to debate or discuss these things since people assume that other person has same kind of view about the situation. And the theoretical premises such as of "total war" and "strategic bombing" doesn't make it any easier.

I remember I once exchanged emails with one russian guy interested about history and of course as I'm a finn we talked about Winter war, the decision of finns to join the war with Nazi Germany and summer of 1944 and so on. We agreed about many things but there were issues we completely disagreed with and this lead to numerous misunderstandings until we realized that even when we originally agreed about many things we understood how differently we saw the cause-effect links between events. We arrived to the same conclusions from completely different directions!

The reason I mention is this that it's clear how differently you Adler see the reality of WWII than many others in this thread. When you say something is fact, they say it's opinion (based into emotions). When they say it's a fact, you say it's wrong. It's not only about viewpoints but you're operating almost in different levels of the issue.

Trying to figure out whether something is justifiable in the history and what were the actual causes between different acts is almost futile act. Thing is that we don't have the information people at those times had, not only the facts but also the overall "feel of things", how people example grabbed different ideas or how likely they choose certain scenarios over different ones. Neither the people back then had the information like we have now in order to see where their actions actually lead them.

Example if you consider the atomic bombs being the first act on cold war and if Truman co. knew it, don't you consider that it might had prevented possible much more severe future conflicts by these two displays of power?
And if their calculations to use the bomb was based into this, can we blame them?

At this point we collide into this invisible wall that reminds us about the difficulty and complexity of the issue. If we start to consider how atomic bombings could had been chosen not to be used suddenly there is plentiful other scenarios that could had occurred because the lack of use of them. How history would then remember the lack of acts then?

IMO there wasn't single reason for the use of atomic bomb. I think it's sheer error to think there's clear one decisive reason for acts as monumental as this one.

IMHO the reasons for use of atomic bomb by US in 1945 were these (some of them probably carry more weight than others):
1. Show by this act of force which is completely out of proportion compared to other ways of warfare (quickness/force/no way to retaliate) to Japan that it must surrender unconditionally (and it does follow the principles of strategic bombing theory as it has the highest score of payoff ratio)
2. Test the weapon and to make sure the project for the bomb is considered succesful (as there was probably pressure to use the bomb like OP suggests)
3. Use it as act of punishment and possible revenge to Japan for being the aggressor and starting the war in 1941 by the attack to Pearl Harbour and the continuing operations in Asia (and further stamping superiority of Allies towards those that still being sceptical about the outcome of the world conflict)
4. Introduction of the weapon to the rest of the world including russians implying that US has now the ultimate weapon (as it was clear that the russians would become eventually the opposition for US/western dominance)

For me the problem for the justifications of the use of bombs is the short window, how short was the time separated by these acts. Did Japanese have clear frame of reference at that point to really be able to justify themselves either the surrender or the continuation of the war?

Personally I consider the fire bombings of Tokyo being as vile acts as of these use of nuclear bombs. Finding justification for based into any of the above reasons is extreme difficult. You will find numerous alternative scenarios that might be much worse than what happened.

However this doesn't in general mean that the acts cannot be considered to be immoral or illegal. They are different conclusions rising from different set of values and premises. Example how we define warcrime or crimes against humanity? Etc.
Is it about disproportiniality of your acts towards civilians, the genocidal nature of these acts even when using amoral total war theory to justify your actions?
If so, such things as Dresden, Tokyo, Hiroshima and Nagasaki easily fit to those descriptions and ultimately aren't only massmurders but also crimes against humanity.
It is quite telling that some are not able to discuss issues without bringing out their pet hobby horses, without any actual support.

There is no such thing as a civilian in a total war.
Indeed it is and in your case it's pet puppy which is the theory of total war. It looks cute but doesn't really count for much else. You may feed it and play with it but still doesn't do anything but look cute.

You probably understand that if we're doing about "justification of acts" you cannot rely into total war theory. You won't find any justification from that theory since it doesn't have any. It doesn't know any nuances or value propositions outside of making the most out of the opportunity to win.

Total war theory is in the same level of justification as the holocaust is for the nazis. You annihilate the pests that are bothering you. Only difference is that total war theory also accepts total submission. Which was the case seemingly with the allies.

It's not coincidence this theory was made famous by a prussian. It is not coincidence that why westerners have been so succesful in war. They have followed this theory all of their history. You have read more than probably Victor Davis Hanson so you know what I'm talking about. But the theory has it's weaknesses, it cannot examine itself since it's justification is the very existence of itself.

Similar for you it seems the justification of atomic bomb is that it simply exists and it can be used. Civilians for you are just objects like buildings that need no considerations but problem with this is that it doesn't actually carry any further justification outside this "it exists, it's powerful, so therefore we can use it to the enemy the way it causes most harm towards it's war effort".

The theory of total war resides in totally different category where the prospect of finding justification lies (example considering the status of civilians in war). That theory doesn't have any considerations towards proportionality of the acts. History becomes repetition of facts, behaviour and actions rather than lessons and inquirys of possibilities about alternative scenarios. And it causes serious strains towards finding optional solutions for future scenarios of warfare as our code of ethics differ from those times. In other words we are doomed to repeat the history and not learn from it. It becomes an "Orwellian machine for truth".

As soon as we apply it, all the considerations towards who's civilian and who's not flies out of the window and same goes to glorifying other side being morally somehow superior since the history is wrote by those who are victorious and not by those who have done more justifiable acts.

If we then start to think outside of that total war theory and consider that war has rules and justifications for acts apart from winning, then we suddenly realize new dimension to these things and theory of total war becomes rather irrelevant since it's completely amoral position. Nature doesn't know justifications, but we do. Theory of total war doesn't offer any kind of fine tuning of considering between different approaches for human warfare or the applications, forms and methods of warfare. If you are trying to find justification of different value of targets apart from their value towards victory. It can be used to justify almost any actions of war even those that are completely overkill so to speak.

Regarding this scenario it might be same as if your opponent in hand to hand combat is in prone position with nose bleeding and questions is do you hit him with sledgehammer? If you base your valuation towards that theory only, the answer is of course. The justification for the act becomes from the fact it's the most decisive way of making sure you're going to win.

If you want to stick into total war theory, you can but don't try to then say allies had more justification towards any acts over japs, huns or russkies. The good intentions do nothing towards anything if the deeds are evil, leading only everybody on paved road towards the gate from which there is no return.
The atomic bomb was the ultimate expression of strategic bombing theory, and allowed the success of this in practice to a greater extent than conventional air deployed bombs.

The aim of strategic bombing is not to kill people, but to destroy cities, factories and homes. If humans get in the way, then it is their bad luck. In a total war, victory is the aim - not the preservation of enemy life, military or civilian.

The most efficient way to destroy a city with the targetting technology of the 1940s is to burn it down. This can be done rather inefficiently by massed firebombing raids, or much more efficiently and effectively by the employment of an atomic bomb.

A further consideration is the dispersal of industrial facilities in Japanese cities, and to knock these machine shops out requires a wide area effect weapon.
You're saying that bombing civilian targets like homes is attack to infrastructure and not towards people. Sure you can think that, but if we consider what kind of effects it has to the population of these cities, the sheer terror of it, they all play part in the strategic bombing theory. Bombing home that has families inside is bombing civilians whatever the way you put it.

That theory takes nice sidesteps and let's say has interesting psychological sideroutes in order to justify the bombings of civilian targets. It's similar to that of combat training were your enemy is dehumanizated in order to be able to defeat him. It will not offer anything towards justification of these acts. If you see the enemy on your sight, you shoot him.
Of course it's nice device to get around the difficulty of justifying shooting civilians, so instead you use other terms like "lowering morale" and "destroying infrastructure". Clever thing that really, shut down the empathy and mimicing part of the brain so finding any similarities between you and enemy is made harder so you are ready for the maximum potential payoff ratio in form of cold calculative murder. However people who actually do it might know exactly what happens beneath them example during fire bombing raids. At least they can wear earplugs so they don't hear the screaming of the old women and children.

However you can use also strategic bombing theory against bombing civilian targets if it means that the effects are minimal considering it's overall effect to the ability the enemy to take part in the war. If payoff ratio is low, you won't do it. In case of atomic bombings it's very difficult position since the war ended after them. But were they the real reason why the war ended or just last straw that would had been cut anyway? You won't find any evidence from that theory towards this problem only the same old mantra "might makes right" and "winners write history".
The bombing of Tokyo was certainly not intended as a terror bombing, but as a strategic attack on the industry, morale and war making potential of the Japanese Empire. Conventional iron bombs would not have been at all effective, given the dispersal of industry. Account, if you can, for the characterization of its only purpose being as a terror bombing.
That is quite much of BS.

You cannot say it wasn't supposed to be "terror bombing" and "attack against morale" at the same time.
Ordinarily strategic bombing like you said was targeted towards infrastructure and potential to make war (which BTW can be interpreted in numerous ways such as of => causing terror => less war making potential) but when applied in large scale towards cities like Dresden and Tokyo or Hiroshima the question is about causing massive amount of damage to the weakest links in the enemy's society to have most impact towards effecting their morale with lowest casualties to your own side. It's pure perfection of sheer terror when it comes to weapons. Stating it was all collateral damage is the vilest of lies that can exist. The extension of that collateral damage crap happens to be even exist nowadays.

Thinking that it wasn't used to purposefully terrorize and destroy civilian targets but for something else actually is against the whole notion of total war theory and might imply that you are holding these acts morally superior to something else but cannot justify them since as said total war theory doesn't have that kind of elements besides winning.
Provide evidence from the USAAF and the Strategic Bombing Survey.
You're asking evidence about wild atrocities from the side that actually carried through them? ;)
Did general handbook of wehrmacht tell how to get rid of jews?

Adler actually mentions one such notion that can be interpreted it such here:
The primary object of the Combined Bomber Offensive laid down in the Casablanca directive of the 21st January, 1943, was “the progressive destruction and dislocation of the German military, industrial and economic systems and the undermining of the morale of the German people to a point where their capacity for armed resistance is fatally weakened.”
How they are going to weaken this "morale"?
It happens by weakening the infrastructure and like I pointed out earlier by making ordinary life much harder.

But the implications don't stop there. As we can see from history the threat of terror and actualization of it becomes available through the massive air bomber fleets allies are able to gather around those years. And they use it. They even develop methods to cause the most massive amount of damage humanly possible to these civilian targets. Civilians have become one of the primary targets and yes it follows exactly the principles of total war theory (and also strategic bombing theory) but finding justifications for it compared to some other methods of warfare are futile if using there theories. You maybe want to find them there but simply won't. The theory is similar to the theory of capitalism it's about pure profit, it doesn't count towards human factor. It's kind of like finding justification to slave trade by that it brings most profits to the slave traders by the theory of slave trade (who's side we of course take since they are the ones that eventually write the history as slaves cannot write :lol: ).

Strategic bombing theory is all about objects and it treats also people as such, you won't find any justifications for any actions from there. It's only maths, the least amount of resources towards the most impact on enemy. That's it. And primary tools to lower morale isn't only destroying the infrastructure but also cause terror. It is to subdue the enemy to the thought there's no other solutions but surrender. Atomic bomb is great tool for it since it basically since there's no shelter from it. The risks for yourself are minimal and effects almost unimaginable compared to them. Of course this only applys long as your opponent doesn't have the bomb, then it becomes more complex game-theory problem.

Of course strategic bombing theory doesn't mention human victims because people behind the theory are humans. So you create detachment and call it "destroying houses and lowering the morale". It doesn't say: "Cause as much terror and human casualties as possible with least amount of your own casualties to produce greatest payoff towards winning". But that's how it works.
It is not a matter of attacking civilians. They are not a factor. They cannot be effectively separated from targets in a total war using the methods available in the 1940s. To pretend otherwise is to avoid the facts.
You're bluffing Simon by implying that it's about total war and then saying that it's technological bottleneck to separate the targets. That is of course partly true but there's difference between making strategic bombing towards industrial targets and massive multiple phased incendiary bombings. Allies just found it was more effective to just "give it a go" for civilians bombings and bomb everything on site rather than concentrating only into military targets. It offered highest payoff ratio towards winning the war. Or they think so but we can question the choice not only by rationality whether these actions actually affected the war outcome and also whether they are after all justifiable acts of warfare.

Of course since some people consider US and western allies being morally superior from the start they think their way of doing total war is more justifiable than those by the nazis or japs. Unfortunately, they aren't. As soon as you apply the rules of total war, there are no justifications to be found from anywhere except winning. It depends entirely what rule system we use to make the judgement calls about these issues.

And needless to mention same rhetoric is used even today.

I apologize for this quite long post but maybe I contributed at least something with it to the discussion. As last words of it I want to point out how difficult to grasp and complex this subject really is like of course many other historical issues. I have feeling some people want to call it clear cut issue and think it's simple case and sweep under the carpet other viewpoints that might have relevance to the subject.

And Adler, no this isn't the end, this would be the beginning of the journey to find the answers if we would be serious about it.

Most of us probably aren't that serious. Not sure about OP since he's on the field.

This was my fat man. :D

(I come later to check&edit possible errors, I'm too tired for that of now.)
 
The holocaust did not start before the Wannseekonferenz in 1942, to a time where the new strategy was ordered, too. When they couldn't know about that.

I think you'll find that the calculated and deliberate murder of civilians, Jews and other "undesirables" predates the conference. Take the einstatzgruppen for example, or Bogdanovka camp in late 41, or even the death rates in the ghettos due to the enforced conditions (over 40,000 in Warsaw alone in 1941). Wanasee certainly stepped up the process of the Holocaust considerably, but it was by no means the start of it. Its also worth noting that some of the earliest news of the holocaust came out of eastern europe just one month after Wanasee.

Note however that I don't believe the Allies were justified in bombing Germany because of the holocaust, I just find your argument about the matter intruiging.

Also the bombings were never intended as reprisal in that kind. And to bomb German civilians and their living areas and supply is also damn near to a genocide.

As flawed as Bomber Command's mission was I really doubt that even Harris in his wilder moments was plotting to kill every last one of your countrymen. Undermine its morale yes, and to do that kill civilians certainly, but slaughter them without end I find unlikely. I could buy the view that the bombing raids could be considered a warcrime, but the use of the term Genocide, and the connotations that brings is just not feasible IMO.

My point is that in some cases separating strategic bombing of infrastructure from bombing in order to lower morale is quite difficult. However I think the difference is on scale and also the methods. I think lowering "the morale" (will to fight) IMO can be quite often effectively considered only to be happening by causing terror and destruction by bombing civilians.

Well naturally, the Germans didn't achieve the damage they did on Liverpool by deliberately going for the docks, they did so by targetting the city as a whole, hoping that damage to civilians and infrastructure alike would have the desired impact. You don't have to deliberately try to hit civilians however to hurt a city's population, although the more you do target it the more effect it is likely to have.

In answer to one of C-G's final points, no issue of history is clear cut, its what makes the discussions interesting...
 
Adler: PrivateHudson is quite right. The Wannseekonferenz only marked a change in method -- from casual, open-air shootings to more efficient production line style slaughter.
 
As flawed as Bomber Command's mission was I really doubt that even Harris in his wilder moments was plotting to kill every last one of your countrymen. Undermine its morale yes, and to do that kill civilians certainly, but slaughter them without end I find unlikely. I could buy the view that the bombing raids could be considered a warcrime, but the use of the term Genocide, and the connotations that brings is just not feasible IMO.
I think genocide is a stretch, massmurder might be a better word.
Of course the goal wasn't total annihilation but like I point out earlier total submission.
When it comes to principles theory of total war there are no second places.
You do what you can do to win and as you don't know the results of your actions, but the decisions are only based into shaky predictions what might cause what you push maybe harder or from wrong spots than you should.
Well naturally, the Germans didn't achieve the damage they did on Liverpool by deliberately going for the docks, they did so by targetting the city as a whole, hoping that damage to civilians and infrastructure alike would have the desired impact. You don't have to deliberately try to hit civilians however to hurt a city's population, although the more you do target it the more effect it is likely to have.
I have to say that comparing german bombings and Allied bombings towards the end of war are very difficult.
Germans probably didn't expect to destroy whole cities with their arsenal and even though they probably were motivated for to cause terror in the cities we might have to consider it had more effect in that infrastructural level and the casualties were minimal and "collateral damage" like. Your assesment about the issue even though you don't say the same as I do here could confirm that.

However when it comes to Allied bombings, they had massive fleets and IMO even though it might hurt someone's feelings to think they were motivated by the thoughts of causing terror and purely murder german civilians such possibilities must be considered since these weren't just single small operations. And even if the motivation was to just hurt germans in their war effort surely the design of fire bombings are easily recognised as way to cause terror and massive losses of human life. Not forgetting the atomic bombs...

I'm rather cynical that these bombings were indeed product of quite devilish piece of planning that was added later as part of repertoire of both RAF and USAAF way of winning the war from air as it became more possible through technology and the amount of planes involved. So for me it's hard to imagine it was all about bombing strategically important military targets unless you consider full civilian cities as one. And more likely the allies actually saw it that way.
In answer to one of C-G's final points, no issue of history is clear cut, its what makes the discussions interesting..
I think some people however do it and probably it's because of their ideological viewpoint about the issue at hand.
 
@C~G:
The theory of absolute war, as Clausewitz once wrote, was more meant about a theory of economy in times of war. Though he still saw rules for warfare as important. As I only read secondary sources to that I can not say much. Indeed I had no time (and don't have it) to read it yet (although I have a copy of Vom Kriege).
The British blockade to Germany in ww1 can be seen as first act of total war theory. Anyway this theory is IMO nothing worse. With that theory we came back to a level of barbary all after 1648 wanted to prevent. And here is the point: Because it was seen as barbaric, as morally wrong and against the rules of warfare, in contrast of everything to try to stop barbary in times of war. That's why, although I have to see the time and the conditions, I have to say that the theory of total war was barbaric. I can not say that in wars of Caesar, when he enslaved thousands, he was acting barbarian because of the time. But later the morale standard was rised dramatically. That's why a step back has to be critized. To implement the theory of total war was a crime per se.
Outstanding post though.

@ Traitorfish:
I would also say the Holdomor was a genocide. It is even recognized as such in several states. Anyway I think the genocide is not totally fitting on the Allied mass bombings. However it is damn close. Still it is a crime against humanity and a warcrime. If the genocide should be redefined is another question.

@ PH:
If you don't see the Allies justified because of the Holocaust, why do you argue in that way?
A Genocide is defined as a deed to destroy an ethnical, rassical, religional or national group totally or partly. So it is indeed not neccessary attempting to destroy a group completely totally. The same is also for physical and psychical damages as well as to destroy the basic needs for a population.
That's why it is damn close to a genocide. So even if you don't kill a single person yourself directly you can be guilty of a genocide. The more I think the more I get the opinion it was a genocide.

Adler
 
If you don't see the Allies justified because of the Holocaust, why do you argue in that way?

Where did I say the Holocaust justified the bombings? All I said was that if you argue that reprisal for crimes comitted against you is justification to retaliate (whether that retaliation stops the crimes or not) then to be fair you have to accept that it works both ways. What you seem to be arguing (that German reprisals for the bombings were justified, but allied reprisals for their own experiences were not) is inconsistent at best.

A Genocide is defined as a deed to destroy an ethnical, rassical, religional or national group totally or partly. So it is indeed not neccessary attempting to destroy a group completely totally. The same is also for physical and psychical damages as well as to destroy the basic needs for a population.

Frankly that defenition leaves too much to be desired as it leaves open any form of warfare to the charge of genocide. You could argue that to attempt to kill a nation's military is an attempt to kill a part of its population, or the attempt to kill dock and factory workers is a case of genocide. If you accept the above you then accept that the deliberate attempt to murder civilians by the Condor Legion at Guernica was genocide, or the attacks on civilian targets during 1940-41 by the Luftwaffe was genocide.

Without any larger discussion of the situation or motivations involved the defenition is flat and almost useless. Not that that's suprising since most attempts to put laws onto war usually fall flat on their face.

However I do rather prefer Lemkin's larger remarks on the subject, namely:

Generally speaking, genocide does not necessarily mean the immediate destruction of a nation, except when accomplished by mass killings of all members of a nation. It is intended rather to signify a coordinated plan of different actions aiming at the destruction of essential foundations of the life of national groups, with the aim of annihilating the groups themselves. The objectives of such a plan would be the disintegration of the political and social institutions, of culture, language, national feelings, religion, and the economic existence of national groups, and the destruction of the personal security, liberty, health, dignity, and even the lives of the individuals belonging to such groups.

Certainly air bombing could be argued to be aiming for a number of these things, but taken as a whole I don't believe it possible to suggest that air bombing of civilians alone was genocide.
 
@C~G:
The theory of absolute war, as Clausewitz once wrote, was more meant about a theory of economy in times of war. Though he still saw rules for warfare as important. As I only read secondary sources to that I can not say much. Indeed I had no time (and don't have it) to read it yet (although I have a copy of Vom Kriege).
I mentioned only Clausewitz since this notion became quite famous because of him even though he might had used different term and like you said saw that there was limit to warfare and saw turning it into just political affair of absoluteness harmful.

Actually Wikipedia happens to have Roger Chickering's description about total war which IMO is very accurate.

"Total war is distinguished by its unprecedented intensity and extent. Theaters of operations span the globe; the scale of battle is practically limitless. Total war is fought heedless of the restraints of morality, custom, or international law, for the combatants are inspired by hatreds born of modern ideologies. Total war requires the mobilization not only of armed forces but also of whole populations. The most crucial determinant of total war is the widespread, indiscriminate, and deliberate inclusion of civilians as legitimate military targets."

Absolute war or total war are indeed economics of warfare. It isn't only using the country's resources for the warfare but also the most efficient destruction of the other country's resources.

That's why using it justification for anything is useless, it doesn't contain any restrictions or justifications for the killing of civilians except the winning.
The British blockade to Germany in ww1 can be seen as first act of total war theory. Anyway this theory is IMO nothing worse. With that theory we came back to a level of barbary all after 1648 wanted to prevent. And here is the point: Because it was seen as barbaric, as morally wrong and against the rules of warfare, in contrast of everything to try to stop barbary in times of war. That's why, although I have to see the time and the conditions, I have to say that the theory of total war was barbaric. I can not say that in wars of Caesar, when he enslaved thousands, he was acting barbarian because of the time. But later the morale standard was rised dramatically. That's why a step back has to be critized. To implement the theory of total war was a crime per se.
Yeah, sure.
And that's what I was actually talking about.

We have to be able look back and also look into current events and find something else to justify possible actions of warfare, but surely total war or absolute war aren't one of them. Then again we can ask whether the situation in WW2 was so dire that total war was not only option but absolute necessity.
I agree that we could conclude that most of the nations that participated into WW2 descended into inhumane barbarism.
 
PH,

It seems only to be inconsistent. The British bombings were made to attack the Germans out of any laws of war. That's why, and despite the Holocaust, which is here in the discussion a total other matter, Germany was allowed to retaliate. I mean if the Japanese had a nuclear weapon herself she was allowed to nuke LA for example despite the genocide in China.

That definition of genocide id not mine but the one by the international conventions to punish genocide. Thus it is a legal definition. If you want to argue against it, please attack that convention. But of all definitions in International Penal law this is the least one. The attacks on civilians of the time until spring 1942 have to be jugded in every single case. The British attacks, and some US ones later in the war, however became a much more and newer quality. Even if it is not a genocide, it is damn near.

@C~G:

Clausewitz wanted with an absolute war meaning in times of war the whole economy has to be mobilized. I so far you have to see also the study of Ludendorff after ww1. In that war a kind of warfare was rediscovered, which lead to the barbarism of ww2. Although here that level was not achieved the thoughts especially in Britain or Italy (Douhet) went into that direction.
But I think it is not the barbarism per se the main problem which is here discussed, but the fact that some here can not accept that the just cause does not mean all means are justified. The western Allies did commit bad crimes as well. As Germany lost and the Holocaust is without equal these crimes are mostly silenced.

Adler
 
Clausewitz wanted with an absolute war meaning in times of war the whole economy has to be mobilized. I so far you have to see also the study of Ludendorff after ww1. In that war a kind of warfare was rediscovered, which lead to the barbarism of ww2. Although here that level was not achieved the thoughts especially in Britain or Italy (Douhet) went into that direction.
I think the idea of total war was carried to almost perfection in the eastern front. If you want to study war, there's the place to start. But as we are talking about two totalitarian regimes it comes quite clear very soon into what kind of propositions the idea of total war leads.

As I said I'm talking about total war theory in regards that only goal is to win the war, it's total annihilation and submission of the enemy by the all means possible and of course more efficient it is (faster, stronger, least resources) the better. Not only about the economical theory. I'm talking more about the interpretarion of it rather precisely what Clausewitz put afront.

The problem with total war theory is also that it relies into making unified singular entity of the enemy's whole society (even though full of different kinds of valuable targets) therefore it's hard to use it to demonstrate that partial political goals achieved by warfare can be as valuable as final and complete victory over the enemy.
But I think it is not the barbarism per se the main problem which is here discussed, but the fact that some here can not accept that the just cause does not mean all means are justified. The western Allies did commit bad crimes as well. As Germany lost and the Holocaust is without equal these crimes are mostly silenced.
This is the primary point I'm putting through as well.

Just cause of war (even based into just war theory) doesn't mean you can suddenly start to use the total war theory as justification for any of the acts. You have to be able to justify every action without relying to the point that is required to win the war and that just cause exist behind the war. You have to find just cause for single actions as well and make point that it hasn't only actual meaning towards winning the war but is also proportionally reasonable act towards certain core values (such as that of human rights) in order to be valuated to be justified.
 
In all frankness given that a subject along these lines rears up on this forum alone about once every 2-3 months I fail to see how the allied crimes are silenced. Every forum I've ever been on that has more than a passing interest in history sooner or later gets around to discussing warcrimes from countries other than Germany and Japan.

Just to clarify something I don't think the allies having the just cause justified the means they used. They did what they thought they had to in order to win the war, they made what we now can see with hindsight were monumental mistakes, they didn't always play by the book. Sometimes in the midst of trying to preserve something you loose sight of it and end up almost destroying it yourself (Lincoln on a lesser scale for example by his at times almost dictatorial actions). I do however believe there was a distinct difference in motivation and end result (for want of a better word) between the western allied crimes and the crimes of the Nazi regime.

The British bombings were made to attack the Germans out of any laws of war. That's why, and despite the Holocaust, which is here in the discussion a total other matter, Germany was allowed to retaliate. I mean if the Japanese had a nuclear weapon herself she was allowed to nuke LA for example despite the genocide in China.

I'm not following the logic trail here. If the British bombings were outside the rule of law its reasonable to argue that so were many of the actions of the Luftwaffe, the Wermacht or the SS. Sometimes its hard to say I guess since the Nazis weren't beyond changing the law to give their forces Carte Blanche.

Arguing that the actions of Bomber command justified the V1 weapons is akin to suggesting that the US army was correct in not taking prisoners for a time after Malmedy. Retaliation is what tends to lead to things like the bombing of Berlin in the first place. Justifying any action on the grounds of retaliation is a slippery slope frankly, since it paves the way for an increasing series of actions, each stepping up the scale from the last.

To turn your last comment on its head for example the British could be justified in shooting dead on the spot any concentration camp guards they captured in retaliation for the crimes they inflicted on the inmates. Whether the British were involved in the terror raids would be irrelevant to this justification. Not that I'm suggesting that is what should have happened, merely that it is similar to the kind of argument you put forward.

That definition of genocide id not mine but the one by the international conventions to punish genocide. Thus it is a legal definition. If you want to argue against it, please attack that convention. But of all definitions in International Penal law this is the least one.

I'm not involved in the legal profession, I don't ascribe to the theory that just because a group of people have come up with a legal definition that we all have to accept it word for word. I won't debate its legal value either (legal issues bore me sorry), surely we can have a discussion on whether the definition itself and whether it is logical rather than simply saying "that's how it is".

The attacks on civilians of the time until spring 1942 have to be jugded in every single case. The British attacks, and some US ones later in the war, however became a much more and newer quality. Even if it is not a genocide, it is damn near.

I must say your date is remarkably convinient and saves you having to explain the Luftwaffe's own attacks on civilians. Lets also conviniently ignore the other roles that the RAF performed during the war and dilute their contribution down to the strategic bombing offensive...
 
Well written, the threat of Russian invasion into Japan would lead to a communist government in the newly conquered territory. The US knew that one day japan could be converted to capitalism but if Russia came in Guns a blazing that hope would be extinguished. The bottom line, If we did not nuke japan they would have been a soviet satellite for a very long time and their country would have suffered more deaths than the nuke would ever have. It was a terrible tragedy but it was used to avoid an even worse tragedy.

As to Bombing German civilians. My great uncle was as Jewish Ace Pilot in the RAF and a survivor of the war. He saw countless cities destroyed by German bombs and families and friends killed in the war. He knew that The Germans were killing millions of Jews and others in their concentration camps. He saw his friend get killed every day up in the sky killed by the German invaders. When it was finally their turn to take the fight to the German cities, how bad do you think they felt about bombing anything they saw. Not very bad at all Id say.

It's really easy to claim that you would have taken the morale high road. But how would you feel when you know almost every single one of your friends has been killed by those Nazi bastards! How sympathetic would you be to the public that allowed the holocaust to happen. How Sympathetic knowing that if you did not bomb them more innocent British and Allied lives would be lost in the ensuing battles. The Allies at least did not kill every German citizen who was captured in the war. We did not force them into concentration camps and died under harsh labor poor health and lack of food, not to mention torture and horrible experiments. The Germans reaped what they sewed nothing else.

I must say your date is remarkably convinient and saves you having to explain the Luftwaffe's own attacks on civilians. Lets also conviniently ignore the other roles that the RAF performed during the war and dilute their contribution down to the strategic bombing offensive...

I agree its very easy to take what my Great uncle and all his brave friends did for the war and say "Oh they bombed innocent civilians." They risked their lives every day trying to stop Germans from killing innocent people. He saw almost every one of his friends die. How can you reduce their great deeds to "killing innocent civilians."
 
@ PH:

You said they did everything to win the war. That's the total war theory. With that you can justify everything. You contradict yourself in this point.
After Malmedy the US forces were allowed to kill the ammount of German PoW that was killed in Malmedy. Not more. And the bombing of Berlin would have been only a reprisal if the attack on London the day before was not an accident (which was nearly clear with three bombers in darkness and clouds and an apology by Göring (well, the last point might be not much worth)).
Also I already explained: Attacks on civilians (except collateral damages) were a warcrime, unless the attack could be seen as reprisal. So every attack on them of the airforces before 1942 has been carefully examined. However you are wrong, if I attacked all British bombing runs or air force missions in the war. But the campaign against Germany by the Bomber Command, yes.

@ Kranden:
With what should have the Soviets made an invastion?!? They had even less ships than the Japanese Navy left. And I doubt the US would have supported a Russian invasion. And without that I can not see a successful Russian invasion.
And what you speak about your uncle is about revenge. My grandma might have been nearly shot by you grand uncle when she just escaped a strafing Spitfire while cycling down an open avenue. That was attempted murder as well. No crime justifies another one. I can understand his feelings from a personal point of view. However this is still revenge and wrong. What did (almost all) of these people to others except perhaps being the wife, children, friend, neighbour, etc. to someone?

Adler
 
You said they did everything to win the war. That's the total war theory. With that you can justify everything. You contradict yourself in this point.

No I didn't, I said they did what they believed they had to do, a subtle difference. The Western Allies could have shot or force marched German prisoners en masse, they could have used chemical weapons, they could refuse to feed German civilians, shoot concentration camp guards, raped German women without any sense of control from the army. There were a great many things that the Western allies did not do that the Germans or the Russians did do on the eastern front. I wouldn't use total war as a justification simply because the allies were not using Total War on a scale comparable to Hitler or Stalin.

Also it is remarkably easy to criticise the action of a country during WW2 without ever discussing what the realistic alternative was.

After Malmedy the US forces were allowed to kill the ammount of German PoW that was killed in Malmedy. Not more.

That kind of argumentation is ridiculous since it implies malice and planning which to me would be worse than not punishing the soldiers for taking it into their own hands. It also provokes a similar reaction from Germans, since no soldier is likely to think in such a clinical fashion. It certainly can be seen to have backfired on Germany in the east, with the Russians treating German POWs terribly, at least in part due to the way Germans treated Russian POWS. Retaliation, especially that provoked by planned action leads only to the opponents upping the ante.

And the bombing of Berlin would have been only a reprisal if the attack on London the day before was not an accident (which was nearly clear with three bombers in darkness and clouds and an apology by Göring (well, the last point might be not much worth)).

Well this just illustrates my previous point, if you break the rules the enemy is likely to respond in kind but harsher. In wartime leaders do not tend to operate under the niave principle of measuring each attack to be on par with the enemy's previous one. It looks good on paper from an armchair but simply would not work in reality during wartime, much like most laws they try to enforce about war.

Also I already explained: Attacks on civilians (except collateral damages) were a warcrime, unless the attack could be seen as reprisal. So every attack on them of the airforces before 1942 has been carefully examined. However you are wrong, if I attacked all British bombing runs or air force missions in the war. But the campaign against Germany by the Bomber Command, yes.

As I have repeatedly explained out Bomber Command's actions were seen as a reprisal by the British public. After a year or more of seeing our homes destroyed, people made homeless or killed and the nightly ritual of the shelters you don't tend to be very upset when it is visited on the enemy. They probably would have happened without the German raids on Britain before 1942 anyway, but perhaps not on the same scale.

A problem however with the above is that you simply throw all of Bomber Commands actions together and lump them all into the category of "attacking civilians" neatly avoiding having to give the RAF the same courtesy you accord the Luftwaffe when someone criticises one of its raids or campaigns.

I wonder however how you can argue that an act that otherwise would be considered a warcrime can be justified through retaliation, but at the same time say:

That was attempted murder as well. No crime justifies another one. I can understand his feelings from a personal point of view. However this is still revenge and wrong
 
And what you speak about your uncle is about revenge. My grandma might have been nearly shot by you grand uncle when she just escaped a strafing Spitfire while cycling down an open avenue. That was attempted murder as well. No crime justifies another one. I can understand his feelings from a personal point of view. However this is still revenge and wrong. What did (almost all) of these people to others except perhaps being the wife, children, friend, neighbour, etc. to someone?

My great uncle was a soldier first and foremost he did what he was told to do By his commanders, yes its possible he was motivated by revenge, knowing that almost all your friends that died defending civilians over London could never be brought back. The Germans attacked first and the British had to do as much damage as they possible could to weaken the German war machine. It's easy to say what you would have done in their position. But years of war can make a man do terrible things he may regret later, when your out killing people from a thousand feet in the air its really hard to consider what your actions may cause. War is hell what do you expect. I'm sure my great Uncle did not go around killing German civilians after the war, but can you say the same for Germany if they had won? What do you think they would have done.
Most likely more mass genocide.
 
I never wanted Nazis winning the war! And I also know that the bomber pilots doing the job are the least to blame (with perhaps exceptions). But the officers demanding the attacks on civilians, be it in the SS, the NKVD or the Bomber Command. They are to be blamed for their crimes.
Revenge is a bad motivation as she might bring you to a point when you get it you lost your soul. You will never be the same before. War is ugly. It is the hell for soldiers. But for defenseless civilians it shouldn't.

Adler
 
I may never know what went through his head every time he got in the cockpit when the air raid sirens rang around him. But I know he knew there was a chance he might never come back. Every day the war dragged on more innocent people English and German would die. I don't know if the killing ever had a morale impact on him. But I can surmise this, I'm sure he understood the cost of war, and saw the sufferings in the ruined city around him knowing both sides would feel the pain of rebuilding physically and emotionally. War is never easy and there are gray shades in all areas. Killing innocent may have no better justification than "It's the best strategy" And a soldier will always do what he is told. The horrors that regular German soldiers committed are good proof of that. Obedience to authority is a very regulary thing.
 
PH, if someone believes to do right he can do much wrong. That is in no way any justification. With the same arguments you could defend the SS, too. Also using total war theory only a bit is still wrong. As alternative why did the British did not bomb the refineries and traffic points or industrial centers as main target? That is another possibility I already mentioned.

I only said, it was legally allowed to do so. That it would have had the disadvantages you mentioned is another thing. Also I would give Malmedy not the character of a planned and organized crime. It was more one crime and not a campaign. In so far a reprisal would be also not allowed. It was only given you as example to explain the character of a reprisal.

I believe the "attack" on London was only a good excusion for some to attack Berlin, too. However in that point of history the situation is difficult, so that we should discuss every single attack. Later we have a planned campaign with civilians as main target. Such a strategy the Luftwaffe never had, at least in the west. Also to feel it was a reprisal is again no reason to accept it as reprisal. The quality of these attack reached a total other level. You said, in one week 2.000 people in Liverpool died. In Hamburg it was 65.000! That is no reprisal any more.

Yes, no crime justifies another. Except there it is a reprisal. A reprisal however is only allowed to force the enemy to come back to the rules and may not be an overkill. Thus after three bombers bombing London accidentally an attack of over 100 bombers attacking Berlin is hardly a reprisal. But for the sake of the discussion we assume it. Later the British campaign to attack civilians directly was out of any justification. That's why the attacks with the V weapons were justified as reprisal. That does not make the British campaign right. There is no contradiction.

Adler
 
Later we have a planned campaign with civilians as main target. Such a strategy the Luftwaffe never had, at least in the west. Also to feel it was a reprisal is again no reason to accept it as reprisal. The quality of these attack reached a total other level. You said, in one week 2.000 people in Liverpool died. In Hamburg it was 65.000! That is no reprisal any more.
Adler

Right the Germans only killed around 6 million Jews. I don't think you can even compare the 60000 German civilians that died to 6 million.
 
PH, if someone believes to do right he can do much wrong. That is in no way any justification. With the same arguments you could defend the SS, too.

By no stretch of the imagination can it be suggested that the holocaust was a method of ending the war sooner (it was in fact detrimental). The campaign of persecution of jews predates the war, as do concentration camps (although not to my knowledge death camps) not to mention the fact that the slaughter of Jews and others began before the war turned sour for the Nazis. Believing something is right is one thing, believing it was necessary (which was my point actually) is another. It is remarkably easy after the fact to say it was neither necessary or proportional, it would be much harder to actually have to make a decision on the matter at the time.

Also using total war theory only a bit is still wrong.

Not anywhere near as wrong as what went on in Eastern Europe for most of the war.

As alternative why did the British did not bomb the refineries and traffic points or industrial centers as main target? That is another possibility I already mentioned.

I believe Zardanaar has already pointed out a few flaws in this tactic. Its also worth remembering that with the RAF's Bomber Command being primarily a night operations force it wasn't always best suited to missions requiring accuracy.

I only said, it was legally allowed to do so.

Interesting, so the law in Germany or international law permitted (or permits) the large scale equivalent of vigilantism then?

That it would have had the disadvantages you mentioned is another thing. Also I would give Malmedy not the character of a planned and organized crime. It was more one crime and not a campaign. In so far a reprisal would be also not allowed. It was only given you as example to explain the character of a reprisal.

Well it wasn't the character against ordinary western soldiers, but it was certainly part of the character against say partizans, Russian POWs or similar.

I believe the "attack" on London was only a good excusion for some to attack Berlin, too. However in that point of history the situation is difficult, so that we should discuss every single attack. Later we have a planned campaign with civilians as main target.

I'm afraid I don't see the attacks on London, Coventry and Liverpool as anything other than attacks on civilians due to the indiscriminate nature of the raids. If the luftwaffe had deliberately gone after the docks in Liverpool for example then fair enough, but since that wasn't the case I don't agree with your analysis. I don't see much difference between deliberately attacking civilians and indiscriminately bombing a city knowing you'll mostly hit civilians. The results are usually about the same.

Also to feel it was a reprisal is again no reason to accept it as reprisal. The quality of these attack reached a total other level. You said, in one week 2.000 people in Liverpool died. In Hamburg it was 65.000! That is no reprisal any more.

The fact that the Luftwaffe were incapable of producing heavy bombers and putting enough planes into the skies over Britain in 1940-41 is no indication of lack of intention to hurt British cities. Besides all that the raid on Hamburg, if Hitler and various Nazis are to be believed almost had the desired effect of knocking Germany out of the war. Besides which the Gomorrah week on Hamburg wasn't always the norm for civilian casualties, other major raids, especially early in the campaign were no more deadly than the Luftwaffe managed.

Yes, no crime justifies another. Except there it is a reprisal. A reprisal however is only allowed to force the enemy to come back to the rules and may not be an overkill. Thus after three bombers bombing London accidentally an attack of over 100 bombers attacking Berlin is hardly a reprisal. But for the sake of the discussion we assume it. Later the British campaign to attack civilians directly was out of any justification. That's why the attacks with the V weapons were justified as reprisal. That does not make the British campaign right. There is no contradiction.

To justify reprisal on such grounds to my mind shows that kind of armchair approach to the war, assuming that every decision can be cleanly made and seperated from others. The Luftwaffe used a lot more than 100 planes on Liverpool, is that reprisal or a crime? Military leaders do not (and in a war like WW2 probably could not afford to) sit down and restrict every action they make to be proportinate to the last one the enemy made. There would be no point in building up a larger air force if you continually restricted its use on the grounds of not deploying more than the enemy used against you in their last raid. The British raids didn't come out of nowhere with no experience of suffering ourselves. There was a period in between when the Luftwaffe was percieved as switching from military to non-military targets, and in a very real sense they did. The British raids were certainly on a larger scale eventually and continued much longer than the Luftwaffe's raids however.

Besides which if we're going to justify reprisals on the grounds of the enemy breaking the rules of war, and continuing the reprisals until the enemy stop breaking the rules then I'm reasonably sure it would hurt the Germans more than the Allies.
 
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