"British Rule" meaning what? "Australia" insofar as it didn't exist until 1901 had at least in New South Wales an appointed Legislative Assembly from 1825. This was made elective in 1845 and was constituted as a full responsible government in 1855. The rest of the major Australian colonies followed soon after.
That's rather different from "dominion status" as an explanation in itself. It's also nonsense. The difference between Dominion status and not-Dominion status was marginal. There wasn't a need to push for it: Australia and New Zealand had both achieved effective independence in domestic affairs. The whole point of granting Dominion status was to formalise a state of affairs that had existed for a few decades. The other telling thing is that the Statute of Westminster 1931 which was intended to grant equality in respect of legislation, and grant, in effect, full independence was only passed into Australia law in 1942 and in New Zealand's case in 1945. In both cases over a decade after the option had been put on the table.
Kaiserguard said:Basically, If I'm understanding you right, these were just outbursts, and never could have led to revolution ala America.
aronnax said:What I meant was that perhaps the reason why AUS + NZL didn't clamour for Dominion/increased home rule was because Britain kept granting, handling and creating a local AUS/NZL political self-rule.
colonialfan said:Can we try and stay focussed on the question at hand and not get diverted into a brief history on the political evolution of Australia and New Zealand?
Brazil?It's funniest when the colonials get stronger than the metropole and decide to keep underwriting the empire anyway.
Were there any Dominions that no one attempted to make a part of Ireland?You could also include Vinegar Hill in which a bunch of Irish conflicts slipped their chains and proclaimed an "Australian Empire" on "New Ireland". It was put down fairly quickly though.
Brazil?
Certainly, a return to pre-1760 affairs would have avoided revolution, but it would also have avoided managing colonies like an efficient Empire believed it should be able to.
I know. But wasn't there a realization that the British colonies that are today's Australia had a common identity distinct from Britain?Australia didn't even exist when those events occurred either![]()
Because Britain's grip on other colonies was either very strong (India, Africa) or because they actually had taxation with representation (Canada, Australia).It's material to the question. If other colonies didn't rebel, why then did America?
Britain's grip on India was never that strong. They ruled there with the assistance of native elites, just as they did in most of Africa (and to some extent, New Zealand). Australia was an exemption, just as, funnily enough, America was, in that it was primarily a settler society, rather than a traditional colony. You'll note that it is the predominantly White Anglo-Celtic societies of Canada, Australia and New Zealand which to this day remain most-friendly to Britain.I know. But wasn't there a realization that the British colonies that are today's Australia had a common identity distinct from Britain?
Because Britain's grip on other colonies was either very strong (India, Africa) or because they actually had taxation with representation (Canada, Australia).
Britain's grip on India was never that strong. They ruled there with the assistance of native elites, just as they did in most of Africa (and to some extent, New Zealand). Australia was an exemption, just as, funnily enough, America was, in that it was primarily a settler society, rather than a traditional colony. You'll note that it is the predominantly White Anglo-Celtic societies of Canada, Australia and New Zealand which to this day remain most-friendly to Britain.
Kaiserguard said:I know. But wasn't there a realization that the British colonies that are today's Australia had a common identity distinct from Britain?