There's a thread on another message board about this situation, and there appears to be some confusion.
Evidently, the human player is in a democracy, and had just waged a long war against korea. The war vs korea was waged in monarchy. The player then changed over to democracy AFTER the war against korea. And then was immediately attacked by the americans. After america took a couple cities from the player, the player's civ went into anarchy. Not just some city revolts, but full on anarchy.
Because the topic poster is too dumb or whatever to do what was suggested and post a savegame here (as he's been instructed), the thread has devolved into a mishmash of "I did this, and then I did that, and then this happened" and so on and so on, and generally every answer he gets, is met with "but i did this....."
The general consensus on the other thread is that he went into anarchy because of too much war weariness, but, does war weariness accumulate even in the civ is in monarchy? I understand if you are in a democracy and have war weariness, it takes several turns (20?) AFTER you make peace, for it to fully go away. If you start another war immediately after declaring peace, you don't start out with "zero" war weariness, correct? Doesn't it take a while for the ww to finally die down? I know that you can make your peeps happy immediately if you get peace, but isn't there some "residual" type ww that lingers and pops up if you get back into a war too quickly?
And could this "residual" war weariness be produced from a war waged in monarchy? Oh yeah, this is for C3C....