You didn't prove that, either in actual dollars or percentages. Check your math.
There are a whole lot of variables that could impact on the wealth of Person A and Person B, but the intuitive conclusion is that the gap between them widens. You're going to have to explain to me how that's not the case, because I'm not seeing it. The opposite conclusion that the rich person has somehow not got richer (used to describe relative wealth), despite firstly earning $1.4 million more, and secondly increasing the gap between them and the other person, simply doesn't not follow. I don't believe my maths in that regard {($2,155,365 - $32,879) < [($2,155,365 + $1,432,890) - ($32,879 + $32,396)]} is incorrect. Maybe a graph will help (and I've extrapolated the trend linearly to make it clearer; if anything this should show a further decrease in 'richness' if that's what you're saying the trend is):
Spoiler :
I should've labelled the 'this' line as the one on the right and the 'that' line as the one on the left, obviously.
The gradient of the top line is decreasing at a greater rate than the gradient of the bottom line, but what is relevant to 'richness' is that nevertheless, the gradient of the top line remains greater than that of the bottom line.