But you misquote him yourself. Jesus never said 'there must not be any rich'.....he said being rich makes it near impossible to lead a righteous life and enter heaven.
He said
ΚΑΤΑ ΛΟΥΚΑΝ 3:11 Greek NT: Tischendorf 8th Ed.
αποκριθεις δε ελεγεν αυτοις ο εχων δυο χιτωνας μεταδοτω τω μη εχοντι και ο εχων βρωματα ομοιως ποιειτω
Τhe one who has two xitons (type of clothes) to give the one to the other and likewise should the one who has food do.
He spoke against the process of one being rich by choosing not to share what he has in plenty that others do not.
His message against amassing wealth was stronger than any of the other messages you think he said. He didn't say Ο εχων πολλα μεταδοτω τω μη εχοντι ολιγα , The one who has much should give charity once a while to those he wish , he said ο εχων δυο χιτωνας μεταδοτω τω μη εχοντι .
Or do you deny this also ?
You could say that he is not against rich people who are willing to make amends but that whole "Devout life" thing is just missing the point when we have clear quotes which speak not about devout life but about what actions are acceptable.
Was King David wealthy? Absolutely. Was he devout? Absolutely. Again, you err in your interpretation. A wealthy man can indeed be devout, but the temptation that great wealth brings with it makes it a very difficult task indeed.
Did King David have two chitons and did not give to his neighbor one , and still remain wealthy ? Did he really archive to pass one from the needle's eye ?
Or is this devoutness totally unrelated to what i said and a convenient way to interpret what you want from what you say is the truth. ( I say it raises some interesting questions but atleast i am not misinterpreting it).
This devoutness seems really quite convenient when it does not make the tiresome task of being analyzed under if the one who is devout did what is being talk in there as devout. Giving his neigbor one chiton if he had two.
So as a rule the wealthy man more likely than not has sinned by not giving to the poor what he had to give.
I am not lying about it. I just possess a better understanding of it than you do. /shrug.
I can't see how. You are saying that being selfish is a sin but then when i give you an example when Jesus directly links up Selfishness with wealth due to wealth being amassed by not sharing you avoid the issue by calling King David as wise and devout. (Example : But he is a murderer ? No he actually is devout and good. ) Hypocritical and if one believed that , Bible was the source of truth , it seems you are not following it.
Which most times is good i guess only your morality when it differs from the Bible is not necessarilly better. You just took the bad parts of it.
Nice try, but lets explore you allegation. The word used for 'none' in 'none is good' in ancient greek is Oudeis and here is the concordance interpretation of that word:
http://cf.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?strongs=3762&t=KJV
Please notice all the references to 'man' in there, so I stand behind my interpretation that 'none' does indeed refer to mankind.


Oudeis indeed means None Human. You are correct. But you must be aware that while one word may have one meaning it may be used in a different context although i do not offer an opinion on this.