TheLastOne36
Deity
- Joined
- Jan 17, 2007
- Messages
- 14,045
I think Poland becoming a colonial power was more likely than Austria. 

Poland did have sea access, but only through Germany or Russia. Austria would take them the long way around. The Poles weren't independent during the Age of Imperialism.
Poland did have sea access, but only through Germany or Russia. Austria would take them the long way around. The Poles weren't independent during the Age of Imperialism.
Countries were expanding overseas before the 1800's right?
And we did have colonies. (courland which was sponsored by us anyway) If we took more interest than i'm sure several caribean islands and maybe an african nation or two and an Indonesian island would be speaking a Polish Creole.
He also thinks Poland could have beaten off the Partitioning Powers, just more jingoism in response to all the trolling etc. You know how it is.You arent serious are you? What makes you believe Poland could do it if Prussia and Russia couldn't?
You arent serious are you? What makes you believe Poland could do it if Prussia and Russia couldn't?
Poland had the manpower and wealth for it at times. If Russia and Prussia had more to deal with I think Poland could have maybe pulled it off. Still even if you take the partitioning powers out of the equation, keeping a strong fleet with Denmark and Sweden also around would have been a problem I think.
Interestingly, by that measure, the Spanish empire was never Spanish, either.
Actually, both Spain and Portugal - particularly the latter - were establishing colonies in Africa before Columbus discovered America. The discovery of the New World merely gave them a favourable alternative to African colonisation, which was limited by the large populations - in America, disease solved a lot of this problem - the lack of centralised governments and the absolute deathtrap created by African climate and diseases.We should think about why some nations colonised the world instead of why Austria-Hungary didn't. Spain (and Portugal) began to colonise because of Columbus' discoveries.
While this is true enough, it must be noted that many British and French colonies were established were the Spanish and Portuguese weren't, rather than where they were. And the reasons the Spanish and Portuguese weren't in those places - primarily North America and Australia - was because there was no immediate profit to be had in going there. That's also the same reason they never penetrated Africa beyond the coast.Then England and France began because they were rivals of Spain and wanted to take part of plundering the treasures of the new world (or even insead of the spanish). Later Holland joined this (because of rivalry against England and their oppressors Spain).
Austria also had little, if any, coastal land for much of this time. It wasn't until Austria gained control of Venetia that it even had a port of its own, I think. By the time Austria had the prerequisites for overseas expansion - namely, at least one warm-water port, a navy, and relatively secure borders - it was facing considerably internal difficulties. This had nothing to do with its rivalry with Prussia.At that time, Austria really had other problems - it's defence against the Ottomans. Later, Austria was Prussia's rival about the leadership of what was remaining of the Holy Roman Empire ater the 30 years war.
Correct. Austria had no need for overseas colonies, and no means of either gaining them or developing them. Any attempt at overseas expansion would have been swiftly halted by France or Britain, and been prohibitively expensive. Though Austria may have done well to spend more time and money on establishing itself in the Mediterranean.On the other side, there was no use for Austria to colonise...
That was one man, and it was a Spanish colonial empire that just happened to have an Austrian - or, let's be honest, more of a Dutch - king. It doesn't count as an Austrian overseas expansion.They already were part of an empire where the sun never sets, as Habsburg's Karl V. (or Carlos V.) was both - german kaiser and king of Spain... (kaiser 1519-1556)
Not none, but the majority of soldiers, financiers and generals were from outside the peninsula, or Portugal.
Alternative answer: yes, because there was no such thing as "Spanish" back then.
Actually, Spain was a collection of different kingdoms under the rule of joint monarchs; Ferdinand and Isabella. It was not a nation in it's own right, but rather a federation of different nations, those being Navarre, Castile, Aragon, etc.. There was no Spanish nation or nationality at this time.Actually there was, the Spanish reconquista finished with the final conquest of the Emirate of Grenada (by then just the town) a few months before Columbus set sail, and the state was well established with the marriage of Ferdinand and Isabella. The Spanish crown used the American conquests as an excuse to send off the more militarily minded of their subjects from some of the more truculent provinces on the peninsula (especially Extramadura). This policy was later used by the English to set up the (second) British Empire, with the use of Irish and Scots.
Actually, Spain was a collection of different kingdoms under the rule of joint monarchs; Ferdinand and Isabella. It was not a nation in it's own right, but rather a federation of different nations, those being Navarre, Castile, Aragon, etc.. There was no Spanish nation or nationality at this time.