SofNascimento_
Chieftain
- Joined
- Aug 24, 2016
- Messages
- 33
On the contrary, the Sultanate of Rum and the HRE both believed themselves to be the legitimate successors of the Roman Empire
Yes, as I said, they wanted to legitimize their rule and invoke the Glory of Rome. But that's a totally different case from the Byzantine Empire. They were Rome. And that's my only point here. Saying the "Byzantines" were not Romans (for the majority of its existence) is just plain wrong. Two quotes from Hellenism in Byzantium: The Transformations of Greek Identity and the Reception of the Classical Tradition:
Spoiler :
The fact is not in dispute: the Byzantines were Romans. The conventional
notion that Rome was for them only an adopted (and so implicitly
foreign) ideal of empire can probably be ascribed to the bias of past
diplomatic historians who were looking for manufactured ideologies in
official documents and who did not feel obligated to take a longer and
deeper view to explain the continuity and coherence of Roman society for
almost two millennia.8 This notion also reflects a western bias, as it makes
Rome into something external to the Byzantines which they only laid claim
to in the abstract for political purposes. In reality, abundant evidence
indicates that in late antiquity and Byzantium the idea of the Roman res
publica was not only the legitimizing element at the center of political
ideology and self-representation at the imperial court but had also become
the point of reference in the personal field of self-consciousness of the
normal citizen.9 We are Romans in most texts written after the late third
century, whether by pagans or Christians, in Greek or Latin.
notion that Rome was for them only an adopted (and so implicitly
foreign) ideal of empire can probably be ascribed to the bias of past
diplomatic historians who were looking for manufactured ideologies in
official documents and who did not feel obligated to take a longer and
deeper view to explain the continuity and coherence of Roman society for
almost two millennia.8 This notion also reflects a western bias, as it makes
Rome into something external to the Byzantines which they only laid claim
to in the abstract for political purposes. In reality, abundant evidence
indicates that in late antiquity and Byzantium the idea of the Roman res
publica was not only the legitimizing element at the center of political
ideology and self-representation at the imperial court but had also become
the point of reference in the personal field of self-consciousness of the
normal citizen.9 We are Romans in most texts written after the late third
century, whether by pagans or Christians, in Greek or Latin.
And
Spoiler :
But the existence of a single state and
political community with a continuous history lasting over two thousand
years defeats scholarly specialization. Periodization, in this case arbitrary,
requires new names such as Byzantium and new names suggest a different
essence.
political community with a continuous history lasting over two thousand
years defeats scholarly specialization. Periodization, in this case arbitrary,
requires new names such as Byzantium and new names suggest a different
essence.
and their people (including the Franks, who were not part of the HRE after Charlemagne) called themselves Romans well into the Middle Ages.
Really? The people in Europe indentified themseleves as Romans? I never read about that. From where is this coming from?