Sidhe I'm sorry for not responding directly to your response to my original question, but TBH I found it rather confusing (grammatically and otherwise) so I figured it may be better to start anew.
I think this "debate" is little more than a linguistic confusion, and there is not much (if anything) of philosophical significance to talk about. So the last thing we should do (Sidhe) is freak out and refuse to answer someone's point because it is some sort of "language trick" or whatever. Language is, as far as I can tell, precisely the source of confusion here.
Fred's definition (as I see it) of atheist is not just some dirty word-trick perpetrated by a member of the evil lawyer's guild, its a good and commonly used definition:
(strong) atheist: The belief that the evidence suggests that God does NOT exist.
(weak) atheist: The belief that in the absense of evidence for the existence of God, we assume that God does not exist, just as in the absense of evidence of the existence of [insert something bizarre, like the FSM], we assume IT does not exist.
agnostic: A position of formal uncertainty. I do not know any more that god exists than that he does not exist.
Often times, when someone states that they are an "atheist", they mean "I am a weak atheist". It is certainly a decent and widely held definition of the term atheist. I created
a poll about this once, and it turns out a majority of atheists adhere to the "weak atheist" position. No amount of verbatim dictionary quotations will change the fact that when many people say "atheist", they mean "weak atheist".
With that plausible linguistic convention in mind, I think it is wrong to assert something to the effect of "atheists are just as bad as religionists because they both believe something that cannot be proven". The reason such an assertion is wrong is obvious: If one taks the "weak atheist" definition, there is nothing believed in.
Now we can move to the more important question of which is the better position, atheist or agnostic. My contention is that, if one wanted to adhere most closely to the general convention that we use when approaching questions of the existence of some x, and if we assume that there is no evidence for the existence of god, the (weak) atheist position is more consistent than the agnostic position. When we approach the question of the existence of some x, it is a simple fact that, in practice, we assume that x does NOT exist until we are given evidence for the existence of x. This blindingly obvious fact cannot be overridden by any amount of nitpicking about the impossibility of disproof. Nobody is truly "agnostic" about the question of whether a man eating tiger is going to rip them apart in their sleep tonight (anybody truly uncertain about such an issue would surely not sleep!). The fact is that, in practice, we assume that a tiger is NOT about to rip us apart because we have no reason to beleive that a tiger is about to rip us apart. As such, it is most consistent to assume that god does NOT exist until given a reason to believe he does!
For those reasons, I see agnosticism (assuming the agnostic has no specific evidence for believing in god) as a position that is less consistent with our general approach towards questions of existence than atheism.
My question to agnostics is, apart from silly linguistic quibbling about what atheist REALLY means (since clearly many atheists consider themselves weak atheists by my definitions), what makes the agnostic position more plausible or linguisticly consistent than the atheist position?