Nutshell == it was due to meritocracy, mercantile philosophy, low government interference, entrepreneurial ethic and industriousness - not geographical advantages. (A bunch of really good social policies, basically.)
This one not even close to reality.
The US had a major advantage over other powers during the 1800s and especially during the early 1900s due to its geographic isolation and natural resources.
Without a major power near it, the US managed to avoid any major war on its own turf except the Civil War. Unlike Europe, China, or the USSR. This provided a huge competitive advantage AND allowed the US to maintain a very small military force for most of existence - again, unlike the European or Russian rulers. Which mean safety and lower risk of investing.
In the 1600 and 1700s (except for FL/CA which the Spanish paid for), the Dutch and English paid for the Colonies industrial expansion. Now, England also tried to limited this as part of their on going colonial mercantile policy, but it only partially worked.
During the 1800s, the US industrial system, with the exception of the Civil War, was financed with English, French and German capital. This included the the Southern Plantation system, railroads, factories and westward expansion after the Civil War. All of this is extremely well documented for anyone who wants to look beyond the surface - the companies, ownership, bonds, capital payments, etc... Its all there.
The entire cattle baron myth always gives me a good laugh - Charlie Goodnight (usually recognized as the most successful cattle baron) and company literally owned the company store, but, in this case, John Adair's (an Irish nobleman) and partners owned Goodnight's soul (at least up until 1919).
Why? It was literally the next great frontier and provide huge returns to the elite of Europe. Starting in 1890s but especially just before and after WWII, most of these assets were literally sold at pennies on the dollar to pay for the war by Europeans. Leaving the US with a very firm industrial footing that we didn't fund. (Nothing like taking over cheap assets to build a country on).
Its also one of the reasons that we had such a problem recovering during and after the Great Depression. Two things happened in the Roaring 20s - capital came into the US as the Europeans sold off assets at pennies on the dollar, and a speculative bubble started.
The US had greater problems coping with the Great Depression that Europe did because we simply had not built the necessary financial infrastructures up to cope that type of massive capital inflow OR the massive bubble. (Now, a lot of other things happened too but the speculation was driven by the capital inflow and we didn't have financial infrastructures to react). And it took WWII to get the US finally out of the Depression.
After WWII, you had Europe, China (Asia) and most of Africa literally living in the stone age and required to be rebuilt. Where we provided the goods. And they rebuilt their industries.
So what really happened was protectionism by the US government through the use of tariffs, heavily restricted imports (don't believe me? check the laws), selected government investment (RR, industry, free gazing for the cattle barons), a very heavy mercantilism policy to attract and accumulate capital, and then purchasing the capital investments at pennies on the dollar when the owners had a crisis at home.
After WWII, the US moved to a free market system as we know it, including trying to eliminate tariffs, open trade, etc.... But prior to that, it wasn't a true capitalist system - it was much much closer to the mercantilism that England practiced.
And want to guess what country doing the same thing now to us that we did to Europe? China. Same strategy and approach.